MESSIANISM IN THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS

The word “Messiah” [Anointed one] translated into Greek gave its name to the new religion… the oil extracted from fruit was, like the fat of animals, a symbol of wealth and abundance. In the anointing with oil, the basic idea of Messianism had found its symbolic expression…..a symbol of blessing which god gives. The second Isaias (xlv. 1) gives the name Christ to the heathen king, the Persian Cyrus. In the second psalm, Christ, the son of god, is a victorious prince, probably one of the Maccabeans, who returns to live on Mount Zion….

Albert Kalthoff, The Rise of Christianity, pp.73-4.

“Jewish messianism, both as an interesting phenomenon in the history of religion in its own right and as the context in which the earliest acclamation of Jesus as messiah must be understood.” ~

John J. Collins, The Scepter and the Star, (2nd edition), p.3

In this blog I explore some very similar divergent concepts that existed before Christianity and can be found in the Dead Sea Scrolls. As Prof. Schiffman said, ironically if we accept that Christianity is not in the Dead Sea Scrolls, the more we can extract and understand Christianity from the scrolls

       Just like Paul’s epistles, the Scrolls were written by apocalyptic Jews and therefore are extremely useful for understanding Christianity. 

KING AND PRIEST MESSIAH

Frank Moore Cross [1] believes the doctrine of the two messiahs found at Qumran has its roots in the restoration of a diarchy, that of a perfect King and a perfect High Priest, who “shall take office standing by the side of the Lord of the whole earth”. (Zechariah 4:14). People had hoped that these would come about at the end of days. This is known as an eschatological concept coming from the Greek ἔσχατος eschatos meaning “last” and -logy meaning “the study of”. These eschatological Jews hoped to establish a new kingdom right here on earth in the last days. This eschatological concept is most developed in two apocalypses written towards the end of the first century CE, 4 Ezra and 2 Baruch. 

At Qumran, the Damascus Document, the Rule, the War Scroll, the Testamonia (4Q175) and the Testaments of twelve patriarchs all show the doctrine of the two messiahs. The double messiah concept shows a division of power that was already reflected from the time of Moses and Aaron.

     David, the ideal king of the old days, is taken as the archetype of the ideal king of this new eschatological age. Zadok, priest of David and high priest in Solomon’s temple, scion of Aaron is the archetype of the new Zadok, the messiah of Aaron.

     Sometimes you will get the expression “the messiah of Aaron and the one of Israel” ( CD XIV 19). Aaron being the priestly messiah and Israel is the secular messiah both of the projected diarchy that Frank is talking about.

     In Christianity (and to some degree later Rabbinical Judaism) the doctrine of the diarchy was replaced by the merging of the two figures into one. This was caused by the destruction of the Temple when the rule of the High Priest was permanently broken.

     The Dead Sea Scrolls shine a light on the eschatological salvation and also introduce the figure (or figures) of a messiah. They clarify the origins of messianic hope that plays such a central position in Christianity.

HEAVENLY MESSIAH

Melchizedek fits right in there with the binary messianism as he was a priest-king. As Cargill has said,”I came to notice the centrality of Melchizedek and the texts that reference him- Gen.14 and Ps.110 – to every aspect of these various interpretations of binary messianic expectations.”[2].

       Florentino García Martínez [3] also sees in the Melchizedek scroll a “heavenly messiah”. (11QMelch col. II 6-9). [please see the appendix at the end of this Chapter to reference the lines in this passage]. The Melchizedek scroll found in cave 11 is an extremely interesting scroll. It was found in a fragmentary state but as the scroll uses many biblical metaphors and quotes, much of this scroll was able to be reconstructed by the experts who recognized the parts of the Hebrew Scriptures that a particular scroll was quoting. In it a heavenly figure proclaims liberty to the captives at the end of days (eschatological). He sets them free and makes atonement for their sins (lines 5-7). The messenger of Isaiah52:7 is identified in 11QMelch as the anointed of the spirit. (line 18). This Melchizedek redivivus, has a superior anointing to that of the ceremonial oil used for Kings or priests, he has an anointing of the spirit. It is Melchizedek who executed judgment and takes his place as God in the divine council (Psalm 82.1; line 9-14). The text describes the heavenly high priest on the great day of Atonement when Psalm 82 would be fulfilled. “God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment.”(Psalm 82.1; line 10).

The protagonist of this text is a heavenly person, an Elohim, called Melchizedek, who at the end of times, will execute justice and be the instrument of salvation. It shows that God was deemed to act through his high priest Melchizedek. The spirit of this heavenly messiah would be applied to a human figure, at the end of days to restore gods kingdom as other types of messiah redivivus figures would.

       Melchizedeks earthly origins serve as a backdrop for his exalted heavenly position. This figure was “king of Salem [i.e., Jerusalem or according to Cargill,[4] he was king of Sodom before Sodom was changed to Salem by the Deuteronomists] and priest of God Most High,” as mentioned in Genesis 14:18-20.

       He was revered by Abraham who paid him tithes, Melchizedek in turn gave Abraham bread and wine.( just like Jesus in the Eucharist). You could compare “the wine and bread brought out by Melchizedek in Gen. 14:18 to a text from Ugarit, which may describe a festival poem used in southern Canaanite Temple ceremony……this gesture [bringing out the bread an wine] on part of Melchizedek should be interpreted as part of an offer of a peace treaty between the King and the man who rescued the people and property of Sodom.” [5] The status of Melchizedek is as a heavenly being can be seen in 2 Enoch and Psalms 110:4.

       It explains in Hebrews how Melchizedek came to be seen as a divine figure. After Adam every character had a genealogy, naming parents etc. but not so for Melchizedek! Therefore he saw him as an eternal divine figure. In Hebrews it’s stated this person had no genealogical record in a book (i.e. Genesis) about genealogical records. Also the author of Hebrews notices his name means “king of righteousness”. (Hebrews7:2-3). He stated he is a high priest just like Jesus not of the Levi order, i.e. a priest of a different order and an eternal order. (Hebrews5:6). Followers of Jesus wanted to claim him as high priest but this would never be accepted as he was not from the line of Levi. Convenient to have him come from Melchizedek instead! So in Hebrews they had Jesus as a Melchizedek redivivus. 

       The author of Hebrews associates Melchizedek to Christ and has established a priestly line distinct from that of Aaron, one from whom Jesus can be derived. ( from the Tribe of Judah, Hebrews 7:14).

       “Others know Melchizedek from his apparent mention in Psalms110.4, where the psalm is typically translated, following the LXX, this way: “You are a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek.” (NSRV). It is this reference to Melchizedek in Ps. 110 (LXX 109) that heavily influenced the later Christian understanding of him. Many Christians know Melchizedek from his multiple mentions in chapters 5-7 in the New Testament epistle to the Hebrews, where he is invoked as proof that Jesus qualifies as both as king of Israel and as high priest, despite not being of the tribe of Levi.”  [6]

He was King of Righteousness, King of Peace, Son of God, having neither a beginning of days nor an end of life. – Hebrews 7:2-3.

Margaret Barker is a very erudite scholar and it is well worth reproducing what she has to say on Melchizedek here:

“When David conquered Jerusalem, he conquered a Jebusite city which would have had its own established cult and Temple. Of this nothing is known for certain, although it is widely thought that the mysterious Melchizedek figure who appears in the Abraham stories (Genesis 14:18-20) is a memory of the Canaanite high god El Elyon in Jerusalem. The Old Testament never condemned El Elyon when Baal and all other Canaanite gods were denounced which suggest that the high god, in some form, retained a place in the new cult of his ancient city.” [7] 

“The blood ritual and judgment at the heart of time were followed by the great feast of Tabernacles and the enthronement of the Lords anointed in triumph over the judged and defeated powers of evil. This was represented in the Melchizedek text by a quotation from Isaiah: ‘How beautiful on the mountains are the feet of those who bring good news, who proclaim peace, who bring good tidings, who proclaim salvation, who say to Zion, Your Elohim reigns ( Isaiah52:7, 11QMelch).

After the enthronement, the creation was renewed. All this was claimed by the first Christians as giving the truest expression of the meaning of the death and resurrection of Jesus. The fulfilment of the blood ritual was explored in the epistle to the Hebrews as Jesus as the new Melchizedek. Also in Colossians 2:15 with its assertion that the powers of evil had been defeated and in Revelation with the ascension, enthronement and renewal of creation.” [8]

The Melchizedek scroll describes a heavenly messiah that became associated with Jesus in Hebrews.

PROPHET MESSIAH

Paul E. Hughes [9] sees a prophetic messiah in the scrolls, figures like Isaiah, Jeremiah and Ezekiel. But it is Moses (Exodus2-3) that is the ideal prophet messiah type. Both NT and Qumran use Moses as a prophetic and messianic figure. 4Q175 testimonia text, refers to a prophet like Moses, quoting two texts from Deuteronomy, the second of which, Deut18:18-19, is about the raising up of a prophet like Moses in a context that considers the matter of prophetic authority. 4Q377 (Apocrophon Of Moses C) refers to the post-Exodus Sinai revelation implicating a curse on those who fail to keep “all the commandments of the Lord as spoken by Moses his messiah”.(4Q377 2 4-6).

Geza Vermes [10] does not see the Prophet as designated the Messiah, even though he has an eschatological function and is associated with the other two types of messiah: “Until there shall come the Prophet and the Messiahs of Aaron and Israel. (IQ Ser. 9: II)” He does state in a footnote 31 from p.137: “The only possible Qumran example in which the word ‘Messiah’ and the prophetic office seem to be connected is a fragment dealing with the heavenly being, Melchizedek.” [11] As studied by Dale Allison, Matthew models his Jesus on the prophet Moses.[12] This would emulate a great prophet and liberator, thus showing the original political connotations of being the messiah. Dale Allison [13] also sees The Community Rule, 1QS 9:9–11 and 4 Q Testimonia were interpreting scripture to envision their leader as “the prophet like Moses”.

SUFFERING MESSIAH

The concept of Messiah Ben Joseph as a foreseen military failure is not developed until later rabbinic literature. (Targum of Zechariah 12:10). There is no development of a slain messiah prior to the Kokhba revolt, Kosiba may have even inspired this concept.

       In Qumran there is a Joseph text, representing the northern tribes but it is not as developed as the Messiah Ben Yosef concept that is found in much later rabbinic literature. Here we don’t have that concept of a slain messiah.

The Joseph text 4Q372.

In fragment 1 Joseph is mentioned twice:

‘and in all this Joseph was cast into the hands he did not k[now]’ line 10, ‘in all this Joseph [was given] into the hands of foreigners’ line14-15

The opening words of the psalm (line 16) has ‘my father and my god’. The references of God as father is infrequent in Hebrew literature. The NT speaks frequently of God as father.

       The text is referring to the fall of the historical northern kingdom. This study suggests the Joseph figure of 4Q372 appears to be a righteous king or `eschatological patriarch’ who quotes in his death-throes Psalms 89 and 22, like the suffering Ephraim Messiah of Pesikta Rabbati 36-37. ( “Messiah Ben Joseph”).

       The text is reflective of the tension and polemics of the Jerusalem community and the community centered at Mt Gerizim (ie the Samaritans) who based their claim to legitimacy on their descent from Joseph.

       4Q372 is not history but prophecy, a view supported by its verbal forms. It talks of the exile of Joseph and his suffering under foreign rulers. Messiah Ben Joseph belongs to the northern tribes. It speaks of a prayer for restoration of himself and destruction of his enemies occupying his land.

A messiah similar to a suffering messiah such as messiah Ben Joseph is a later development such as seen in Marks gospel. The disciple in Marks gospel misunderstand that Jesus has to suffer and instead had wanted a glorious messiah.[13].

Footnotes

[1] Frank Moore Cross, Notes on the doctrine of the two Messiahs at Qumran and the extracanonical Daniel Apocalypse (4Q246), Current Research and Technological Developments on Dead Sea Scrolls, Volume 20, edited by Parry & Ricks.

[2] Robert Cargill, Melchizedek, King of Sodom, Preface.

[3] Florentino García Martínez, Two Messianic figures in Qumran texts, Current Research and Technological Developments on Dead Sea Scrolls, Volume 20, edited by Parry & Ricks.

[4] Robert Cargill, Melchizedek, King of Sodom, ch1.

[5] ibid.

[6] ibid, introduction

[7] Margaret Baker, The Gate Of Heaven, 15.

[8] ibid, 62-3.

[9] Paul E.Hughes, “Moses’ birth story: A Biblical Matrix for Prophetic Messianism”, Eschatology, Messianism and the Dead Sea Scrolls, Craig & Flint.

[10] Geza Vermes, Jesus the Jew, 137.

[11] ibid, 137, fn 31; Cf. M. de Jonge – A. S. van der Woude, ’11QMelchizedek and the New Testament’, NTS 12 (1966), pp. 301-8; J. T. Milik, ‘Milki-,sedeq et Milki-resa ‘ dans les anciens ecrits juifs et chretiens’, JJS 23 (1972), pp. 95-144.

[12] Dale C. Allison, Jr., The New Moses: A Matthean Typology.

[13] Dale C. Allison, Jr., Scriptural Allusions in the New Testament: Light from the Dead Sea Scrolls (Eugene: Wipf & Stock, 2018)

This book is fascinating showing where the DSS hits off of the NT.

[13] Eileen M. Schiller, The Psalm of 4Q372 1 Within the Context of Second Temple Prayer, The Catholic Biblical Quarterly Vol. 54, No. 1 (January, 1992), pp. 67-79;

Thiessen, Matthew. “4Q372 1 And the Continuation of Joseph’s Exile.” Dead Sea Discoveries, vol. 15, no. 3, 2008, pp. 380–395.

Paul’s list of-post­ resurrection appearances (1 Cor. 15.1-9)

For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5 and that he appeared to Cephas, and then to the Twelve. 6 After that, he appeared to more than five hundred of the brothers at once most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. 7 Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles, 8 and last of all he appeared to me also, as to one abnormally born.

I Cor. I5.5-9

Paul’s list of-post­ resurrection appearances ( I Cor. I5.5-9) turns out to be a competition list between James and the apostles and Cephas and the twelve. Bart Ehrman tells of a pre Pauline tradition of a creed within 1 Cor. 15.3-8. [1]

There are clues that Paul did not devise this statement himself. First is the way Paul introduces it with the words “delivered” and “received” (1 Cor. 15.3). The terminology of “received” and “delivered,” as often noted by scholars, is the kind of language commonly used in Jewish circles to refer to traditions that are handed on from one teacher to the next.

“The terminology of “received” (paralambano, παραλαμβάνω ) and “delivered,” (paradidómi, παραδίδωμι) as often noted by scholars, is the kind of language commonly used in Jewish circles to refer to traditions that are handed on from one teacher to the next.” [2]

Transmitters of the Tradition

In rabbinic literature the chain of tradition is given as follows: Moses received the Torah on Sinai and delivered it to Joshua, who in turn delivered it to the elders, the elders to the prophets, and the prophets to the Men of the Great Synagogue (Perkei Avot 1:1).

I have one slight change from Bart’s creed reconstruction in that I see James in the original creed rather than Cephas. ‘Cephas’ and ‘the twelve’ is in competition with ‘James’ and ‘the apostles.’ Bart shows ‘the twelve’ is an import, I also see Cephas added (by Paul) as an import to downplay James. (Ehrman has Cephas at the end of this creed but it could just as easily have been James as he is also mentioned and was the leader of the Jerusalem church according to Gal 2:12).

The creed that is held in 1 Cor. 15:3-8 is

1a Christ died

2b For our sins

3c In accordance with the scriptures

4a and he was buried

1b Christ was raised

2b on the third day

3b In accordance to the scriptures

4b And he appeared to James.

The following is taken from chapter 4 of Bart Ehrmans’ “How Jesus Became God.”

So in the passage in question 1 Cor. 15.3-8, there are a number of indications that it was not Paul’s writing and is pre Pauline. Firstly we have grammatical formations that are foreign to Paul. One is the verb “he appeared” to the “twelve”.

Bart Ehrman finds the original creed is in vv.3-8. The second half of v.6 (“many of whom survive”) and all of v.8 (“last of all he appeared even to me….”) are Paul’s comments on the tradition. There are reasons for thinking the original creed was contained in vv.3-5., this produces a very tightly formulated, brilliantly structured creedal statement.

Stuart G. Waugh has a very interesting reconstruction of this creed where he names nobody (except Christ). [3] Here is Stuart G. Waugh’s reconstruction of 1 Corinthians 15:1~11:

“Now I make known to you, brothers, the Gospel which I preached to you, which you received, in which you also have stood, through which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless in vain you believed. For I handed on to you, in the very first things, that Christ died for our sins, and that he was buried, and that he was raised on the third day. Therefore whether I or they, so we preach and so you believe.”

Waugh’s reconstruction in Irenaeus, Against Heresies, Book III, chapter 18, verse 3, and in Tertullian, Against Marcion, 3:8. He uses the Dialogue of Adamas in his reconstruction. If and this can only be an interesting hypothesis as we have to use Marcion cautiously as we do not have accurate MSS of Marcion. If this reconstruction is original it would argue in favour of competing factions adding their names later. It would be a reflection of these rival factions.

Awareners of the parallelism provides some support for the view, going back to Harnack, that we have evidence of rivalry between groups supporting Cephas and James.[4]

One group who were not considered a faction were the 500 and I don’t see this added later. One of the most interesting part of the post resurrection appearances is that he appeared to 500 brothers. Dale Allison cannot figure out who the 500 were that Jesus appeared to in his ressurection appearances, ἔπειτα ὤφθη… πεντακοσιίοις ἀδελφοῖς, after that he appeared to…five hundred brothers (1 Cor. 15:6). But then he gives us a hint of who they might be but as a Christian scholar cannot conceive of it: “with reference to the five hundred, [he] speaks of “brothers” (ἀδελφοί), not “brothers and sisters” (ἀδελφοί καὶ ἀδελφαί),” [5] This hint leads me to think that these could have been the remnants of the group that had revolted in Jerusalem. The gospels do not use this in their narratives as the evangelists try to suppress the movements rebellious past, mentioning this remnant would do nothing for the pacifist layer the gospels were trying to convey. After all this was a movement trying to survive persecution in the aftermath of the Roman Jewish war. “Whereas the apostle was writing to people in Greece, the appearance to the five hundred must have occurred in Israel, where surely the majority of surviving witnesses still lived.” [6]

[1] Bart Ehrman, How Jesus Became God, chapter 4.

[2] From Ehrman “Did Jesus Exist?” Page 122.

[3] Stuart G. Waugh in his blog

http://sgwau2cbeginnings.blogspot.com/2012/06/marcionite-1-corinthians-151-11.html

[4] Painter, Just James, p.108.

[5] Allison, Dale C., Jr., The Resurrection of Jesus, Apologetics, Criticism, History, (Bloomsberry, 2021), p.74

[6] Allison, ibid, p.51

Early Christianity as a Spirit Possession Cult.

When Paul was plying his missionary trade in the the oriental regions, the competing superior stoic and platonic philosophy affected Paul’s ability for success in his mission. It explains why Paul was not able to make inroads into Athens, (something Luke tried to make up for in his retelling of Christian origins, Acts 17:15-34) but he was able to succeed a little better in the wild city of Corinth. He exacerbated at one stage “More than that, I regard everything as loss because of the surpassing value of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things, and I regard them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ” (Philippians 3:8). He disregards those displaying superior philosophy:

“Do not deceive yourselves. If any of you think you are wise by the standards of this age, you should become “fools” so that you may become wise. For the wisdom of this world is foolishness in God’s sight. As it is written: “He catches the wise in their craftiness”; and again, “The Lord knows that the thoughts of the wise are futile.” (1Cor.3:18-20).

Paul saying the wisdom of the wise shall perish was brilliant marketing as of course smart people would automatically reject this.

So to try and break in Paul says “The weapons we fight with are not the weapons of the world. On the contrary, they have divine power to demolish strongholds.” (2 Cor. 10:4.)

In discussing how Paul used philosophy for his theology, Troels Engberg-Pedersen [fn 1] notes:

“Rarely, if ever, does Paul draw manifestly and overtly on any distinct philosophical position that can be directly connected to either Stoicism or Platonism. He simply does not directly speak Stoicism or Platonism. Instead, he does argue on issues that are distinctly philosophical in ways that reflect some form of knowledge of philosophical thinking on those issues; and he does this in such a manner that his arguments are genuinely illuminated by bringing in distinctly philosophical ideas from this or the other type of philosophy.”

Here are some of the philosophical themes Paul used to argue his case (page numbers from book in footnote):

P205
“In Galatians “Paul distinguishes between the ‘spirit’ (pneuma) and the law, connects the latter with the ‘flesh’ (sarx), …”

P207
“… Paul operates with the pneuma and the sarx as ‘apocalyptic’ powers that are fighting one another over getting control of the Galatians.”

P208. “Romans 7:7–8:13 … show the vital difference between living under the Mosaic law alone (as described in 7:7–25, cf. 7:5) and being filled with the pneuma of Christ (8:1–13, cf. 7:6). Once again, we find the curious mixture of ‘apocalyptic’ thinking (of the pneuma and sarx as independent powers) and a cognitive, philosophical perspective that we noted in the Galatians passage.”

In Paul’s joining of the Jesus group, Paul tells us it (Gal 1:16) was that God revealed his Son IN Paul. The spirit of the Son entered Paul. Similarly the spirit of the Son enters Christians generally and they become Sons of God. (Gal. 3:16) This is, obviously, a spirit possession cult, maybe not obvious to all. Modern translators try to say god revealed his son to Paul as in a vision but this is not what the Greek says. So the cult members were known as “in Christ”.

This spirit possession was seen through an eschatological lens.

Paul hints that experience of the Spirit is closely linked with the eschatological hope. Thus, in outlining the present period of travail in Romans 8.11 ff., he speaks of Christians being the ones who have the first fruits of the Spirit (v.23). The implication is that, despite having already tasted of that glory (cf. Heb. 6.5), even Christians long for a greater liberation still to be made manifest; Christians too, therefore, join in the travail of the messianic woes which precede the coming of God’s kingdom (cf. 2 Cor. 1.22).

Christopher Rowland [*1]

This spirit possession of the Lord in eschatological terms had a precedent in Ezekiel:

I will sprinkle clean water upon you, and you shall be clean from all your uncleannesses, and from all your idols I will cleanse you. A new heart I will give you, and a new spirit I will put within you; and I will remove from your body the heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. I will put my spirit within you, and make you follow my statutes and be careful to observe my ordinances. Then you shall live in the land that I gave to your ancestors; and you shall be my people, and I will be your God (NRSV).

Ezek 36:25-28

Jesus was a realized messiah, the first fruits and the movement Paul was writing to were to be possessed by “the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you”, (Rom. 8.11), they were to be like mini christs. Paul saw himself as a host for the spirit Christ, i.e. a spirit possession cult:

For through the law I died to the law so that I might live for God. I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me.

(Gal. 2:19-20)

As Michael B. Thomson says “Paul’s vision for ministry included the transformation of individuals and communities into the saviour’s likeness (2 Cor 3:18). He laboured so that Christ would be ‘formed’ in his hearers (Gal 4:19), that his congregations would grow up into the image of the one into whom they had been baptized (Rom 6)” [2]

In the Graeco-Roman world, pneuma was understood as a material substance, often associated with the divine, and considered responsible for new life and vitality in human anatomy. When the Gentiles receive the spirit of the Son into their hearts and thus cry out ‘Abba’ to God, they take in something of the essence of Christ. Thus for Paul baptism is an embodied transformation. The spirit materially changes the Gentiles into Gentiles-in-Christ, securing the new connection between the baptized, Christ, and the founding ancestor, Abraham.
[This is all laid out in ] Galatians 3:26–29.

Caroline Johnson Hodge, Paul and Ethniticity [3]

Paul also promised the Corinthians all new bodies in the ressurection, continuing with Troels Engberg-Pedersen essay:

P209
“Paul’s “notion of a ‘pneumatic [“spiritual”] body’ (Cor. 15:44) he is drawing on the Stoic idea that the ‘heavenly bodies’ like the sun, moon, and stars (cf. 15:40–41) were made up of material bodies whose materiality consisted precisely in their being put together by pneuma (Engberg- Pedersen 2010). In addition, Paul insists, in a manner for which one may find a counterpart in Aristotle (Asher 2000), that the pneumatic, heavenly, resurrection bodies will come into being through a process that will take the form of a genuine transformation. This particular earthly and mortal body will ‘put on immortality’ (15:53) in the sense of undergoing what Aristotle called a ‘substantive change’ (from this something into this something that is substantially different).
The second noteworthy thing is the extent to which Paul situates his whole argument squarely within a hierarchical cosmology of the usual kind in Graeco-Roman philosophical physics, with earth and heaven figuring as opposed poles that are also evaluatively asymmetrical. Within this cosmology there are beings (those that possess ‘flesh’: human beings, animals, birds and fishes, 15:39) who all have a ‘psychic body’—that is, they are alive—as opposed to what holds of inorganic matter. Only some of those with a ‘psychic [p.210] body’, namely, human beings, may then receive a ‘pneumatic body’. In short, there is a complete (ancient philosophical) scala naturae implied in this argument.
And why? Apparently because Paul did not just settle for telling the Corinthians of the ‘mystery’ (15:51) that he does reveal by means of suitably ‘apocalyptic’ imagery (the last trumpet etc.). Instead, he wanted to construct a reasoned picture of what would happen, one that was at least in principle discussable in ancient cosmological terms.”

————————————
Footnote:


[1] This OP draws on the scholarship of Troels Engberg-Pedersen, “Paul the Philosopher” in Handbook in Pauline studies, Eds Novenson and Matlock, Oxford 2022, ch. 11.

[*1] Christopher Rowland, Christian Origins, An Account of the Setting and Character of the most Important Messianic Sect of Judaism, 2nd edition, p.112

[2] Michael B. Thomson, “Paul and Jesus” in Handbook in Pauline studies, Eds Novenson and Matlock, Oxford 2022, p.396.

[3] Caroline Johnson Hodge, “Paul and Ethniticity” in Handbook in Pauline studies, Eds Novenson and Matlock, Oxford 2022, p.555

Two feedings in Mark

TWO FEEDINGS
Mark’s gospel has two versions of the miraculous multiplication of loaves and fishes (6:34-44; 8:1-9).

HISTORICISTS EXPLANATION
The thing that strikes us first is perhaps the suspicion that a single basic sequence was passed on intact by means of a process of oral transmission which eventually allowed many of the details to change and develop, until there were (at least) two versions circulating by the time Mark encountered the tradition. They were different enough that he decided not to risk leaving either set out. Like a modern fundamentalist faced with a set of biblical contradictions, Mark may have assumed similar events happened twice. At any rate, the mere fact of the doubling of the story chain is highly significant, since it allows us to gauge the kind of variation and evolution that was possible in the oral tradition.

SEMITISM:
Semitisms are linguistic features within the Greek texts which are dissimilar and otherwise unused in the Greek language but common and well known in the Semitic languages and translations of Semitic texts such as the LXX.

Hebrew and Aramaic use particles or prepositions to indicate the case of a noun and its function in the phrase or sentence. (unlike Greek which has an inflectional noun declension), so overuse of nouns and pronouns connected to possession, nominative, and accusative case is extremely bizarre writing in Greek but normal in NW Semitic.

Redundancy of Nominal/Accusative/Genitive phrases
-συμπόσια συμπόσια 2x in Mark 6:39-42

Idiomatic Narrative Phrases

  • ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν in Mark 6:37
  • Ἐν ἐκείναις ταῖς ἡμέραις in Mark 8:1
  • ἔκλασεν καὶ ἐδίδου in Mark 8:6

This would mean that there was a previous text which would have been translated from a Semitic language into Greek.
———————————————————-
MIRRORING THE SEPTUAGINT
The two sea miracles recall Moses’ parting the sea (Exod. 14), while the pair of feeding miracles mirror Moses’ feeding the Israelites in the wilderness with manna and quails (Exod. 16; Num. 11:4-15, 18-23, 31-32) and Elisha’s miraculous multiplication of food in 2 Kings 4:1-7 and 4:42-44.
———————————————-
SOURCE Deconstructing Jesus, Dr Price.
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MEN ONLY AT FIRST FEEDING
At Mark6:44 the word ‘ANER’ (ανηρ) is used. It is a Greek word for male gender only. This was very strange to have males only at the first feeding so Matthew changed this to include women and children. Why male only? Because it parallels with both 2Kings4:43, “How can I set this before 100 men…”
Not only that but it also parallels with a feeding in the Odyssey by Homer of only men……

HOMER EPICS AND THE GOSPEL OF MARK P86 onwards (MacDonald).
“When Telemachus and Athens arrived at Pylos they witnessed a feast to Poseidon on the shore at which the celebrants sat divided into units and 500 men were in each, 4500. Later Homer makes it clear that this is a feast only the men of Pylos participated. The male only party in Homer presumably is due to the nature of the feast – a sacrifice by sailors to secure favorable weather and seas from Poseidon.
The 5000 whom Jesus served at the shore of the Sea of Galilee likewise were exclusively male. Mark gives no justification for the presence of men only. Matthew added women and children.
The correlations of disembarkation at shores and the feedings of 4500 or 5000 men are not accidental. They are Marcan flags.
Homer’s second feast at Menelaus’s Sparta was lavish but presumably smaller and because it was a wedding feast it included women.
Similarly the crowd in Mark’s second meal though substantial, is smaller than at the first and like the Spartan wedding seems to have included women.”
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SOURCE Homeric Epic and the gospel of Mark, MacDonald.
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WHICH IS MORE LIKELY?
ORAL TRADITION
Or
MARK USED SOURCES OF KINGS, EXODUS, NUMBERS AND THE ODYSSEY.

Paul’s sources

Part 20 of my Historical Jesus series

Raphael Lataster wrote in an article in 2014:

“Even when discussing what appear to be the resurrection and the last supper, his only stated sources are his direct revelations from the Lord, and his indirect revelations from the Old Testament. In fact, Paul actually rules out human sources (see Galatians 1:11-12).” [1]

Yet Paul does indeed hint at alternate forms of knowledge about Jesus. While he is adamant that his specific circumcision-free gospel was received via revelation, he also has to concede that he once went to meet with Peter, James and John to run his understanding of the gospel by them to ensure that he “had not run in vain.” (Gal. 2:2).

In the last part we discussed Gal. 1:11-12 where many mythicists think that Jesus is a revelatory being only, and this revelatory Jesus was Paul’s only source of information on the gospel (doctrines) of the Jesus movement. This tends to be the crux of the Carrier-Doherty hypothesis and other agnostic adherents such as Lataster. Granted it is clear that he considers his own inventions as something given from above. Yet it is only when Paul claims he gets his information (or knowledge gnosis) on some of the aspects of the gospel which happen to be in contradiction to the movement’s gospel, that Paul says he gets it from revelatory Jesus. Yet not everything he gets is from revelation (except his own version of the gospel which is in contradiction to the movement’s gospel).

              When Paul joined, he received the gospel from the movement and distorted it himself as I will show in this article. 

“Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ.” (Gal. 1:7)

From that passage you can see the opponents of Paul had the same gospel about Jesus but were ‘correcting’ Paul’s version.

Paul is so jealous of the Jamesian side checking up on him (2 Cor.11:4, Gal. 1.6-9) that it is evident this movement was around before he joined. Also there is evidence of pre-existing creeds (eg 1 Rom. 1:3-4 ;1 Cor.15:3-8) and pre existing ritual (1 Cor. 11:22-25) that all show a thriving movement in existence. (Discussed below).

As seen in the last part, Paul was on James’s circumcision team at first. You can see the earlier expression of the Jesus movement but now Paul was now coming out of the law observant aspect:

“Brothers and sisters, if I am still preaching circumcision, why am I still being persecuted? In that case the offense of the cross has been abolished.” (Gal. 5:11)

Here in this article I show you that Paul does not rule out human sources for everything. That agnosticism on the historicity of Jesus is not necessary. In fact with my last bunch of blogs (here, here, here and here) and this one, historicity can quite easily be established.

            Sometimes Paul gets his information from sources other than revelation (apocalypse).

The fact that Paul specifically claims he has a revelation proves this to be an exception to the rule that generally he “receives” tradition. His need to explicitly note his revelation proves that he differentiates revelation from regular reception/teaching which he does in Galatians:

“1:12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by a revelation (apokalypseōs, ἀποκαλύψεως) from Jesus Christ.

13 For you have heard of my previous way of life in Judaism, how intensely I persecuted the church of God and tried to destroy it.” (Gal. 1:12-13)

•In Gal. 1:12 specifically notes that this specific kind of “received” bit he got was not from man or a teaching (didache).

•In Gal. 1.13 Paul openly claimed that he used to persecute Christians before he converted. Which means he must have known at least something about what Christians preach before his conversion (he wouldn’t have persecuted them for literally no reason). Which in turn means he learned at least something about what Christians preached from other men. Not everything Paul learned about Jesus was from revelation, it’s only his version of gospel that Paul learned from his own revelation. This was so Paul could legitimise his version of the gospel above those of the “pillars”.

“Now, brothers and sisters, if I come to you and speak in tongues, what good will I be to you, unless I bring you some revelation or knowledge or prophecy or word of instruction?” (1 Cor. 14:6)

As seen in this verse Paul explicitly defines a difference where he distinguishes teachings (didache) from revelation. Other examples of his explicit notation of revelation include Galatians 2:2, Romans 16:25, 2 Cor. 12:7.

“I went in response to a revelation and, meeting privately with those esteemed as leaders, I presented to them the gospel that I preach among the Gentiles. I wanted to be sure I was not running and had not been running my race in vain.” (Gal. 2:2)

Here in these examples he isn’t saying he received a tradition, but received his “gospel” via a “revelation” (apocalypse).

Why was Paul afraid of running … in vain? He feared of being turfed out of the movement, so he was comparing his gospel with that of the Jerusalem council. As Gerd Lüdemann once stated, they hardly talked about the weather. So in this example of revelation it still has human source on the gospel of the Jerusalem Council.

So in these ‘revelation’ verses means that because he treats these as separate categories, unless he is explicitly saying he has revelation, there is no reason to accept that revelation was how he received the tradition. I will note other examples where he explicitly distinguishes between:

a) that which is taught and received, and b) that which is revealed.

Now let me discuss a different source.

“I praise you for remembering me in everything and for holding to the traditions just as I passed them on to you.” (1 Cor 11:2)

From that verse you see Paul is passing on traditions he got from the movement. Paul also indicates himself he received his gospel message from others in First Corinthians:

“For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance”(1 Cor. 15:3)

Paul himself had received a Christian message, before he started to proclaim it. This particular tradition that Paul passes on is a pre-Pauline creed. (Discussed next section) Paul uses the language of passing on an oral tradition. Here, the language is like a tradition that has been refined into a creed. It’s evidence for what people before Paul believed. Paul isn’t saying he got this from mystical sources (dreams, revelations). He’s saying the opposite.

           Paul’s Last Supper formula origin (1 Cor.11:22-25) is that he is passing on what he has received and that he thinks the origin is Jesus. By implication of the terminology he uses, his tutors or predecessors gave it to him. Or he simply learnt it from participating in Jewish Christian communities. The idea that he received everything in visions from above is not a proper nuance of what’s going on here.

          The terminology of “received” (paralambano, παραλαμβάνω ) and “delivered,” (paradidómi, παραδίδωμι) as often noted by scholars, is the kind of language commonly used in Jewish circles to refer to traditions that are handed on from one teacher to the next.” [2]

            In rabbinic literature the chain of tradition is given as follows: Moses **received** the Torah on Sinai and **delivered** it to Joshua, who in turn delivered it to the elders, the elders to the prophets, and the prophets to the Men of the Great Synagogue (Perkei Avot 1:1).

           Paul is very emphatic about the fact that what he got from Jesus in visions was confirmed by what the apostles were already teaching. The only reason he says he gets things directly from visions was to put himself above the ‘pillars’. Paul always tries to make himself out greater than the ‘pillars’ so of course he says “he received it from the Lord” (what better authority), Paul would never have been so foolish to use common Jewish terminology  “paralambano” which indicates he is receiving a tradition handed down. This indicates a ritual picked up rather than something Paul just hallucinated.

         This Last Supper formula also has the markers of a Jewish Oral Tradition which is taken to mean that this is actually the oldest piece we have about Jesus, this along with other pre Pauline traditions (discussed below) incorporated in Paul’s epistles show it is already an oral tradition before Paul receives it.

Which means that because he treats these as separate categories, unless he is explicitly saying he has revelation, there is no reason to accept that revelation was how he received the tradition (because he otherwise explicitly notes said revelations).

PRE-PAULINE LITERATURE INCORPORATED IN PAULS EPISTLES.

Bart Ehrman tells many pre Pauline traditions. [3] They are in a different style – poetic vs. the usual prose of Paul’s work. I will examine these now.

Paul’s Last Supper formula

In First Corinthians as discussed already indicates a church ritual tradition of Eucharist (thanksgiving) already widespread. 

“For I received from the Lord what I also passed on to you: The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed, took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it and said, “This is my body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of me.” In the same way, after supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood; do this, whenever you drink it, in remembrance of me.” (1 Cor. 11:22-25)

Paul actually gives the hint that this “new” ritual is an ancient idea, the consuming of Christ as “spiritual food” in 1 Cor. 10:1-17

“Our forefathers … ate the same spiritual food and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ …

Is not the cup of thanksgiving for which we give thanks a participation in the blood of Christ? And is not the bread that we break a participation in the body of Christ? Because there is one loaf, we, who are many, are one body, for we all partake of the one loaf.” (1 Cor. 10:1-17).

In another graphic metaphor Paul speaks of “Christ, our Passover lamb” (1 Cor. 5:7) and he piles in references to yeast, bread, dough and anything else he can think of to give his ritual fulsome Jewish antecedents. It was a celebratory meal held by communicants. Consummation of a God has a very ancient pedigree that goes back to Egyptian times.

Creed at the start of Romans

“Concerning his Son—born from David’s seed according to the flesh, 4Marked out by resurrection of the dead as God’s Son in power according to a spirit of holiness—Jesus the Anointed, our Lord, “. (Rom. 1:3-4)

Seems to be a quotation of an earlier hymn or creed. This particular creed shows that the earliest Christians thought that Jesus became divine after his resurrection.

            These pre Pauline traditions show post resurrection adoptionest views, where God adopted his son as divine sonship after the resurrection. (Later adoptionists using the gospels, implied God adopted his son at the baptism).

(Cf Acts 13:32-34).

Here is the reconstructed creed:

“Born from David’s seed,

Concerning his son,

According to the flesh,

Marked out by Resurrection,

of the dead, Son of God,

According to the Spirit.”

The Philippians hymn

6 who, though he was in the form of God,

   did not regard equality with God

   as something to be exploited, 

7 but emptied himself,

   taking the form of a slave,

   being born in human likeness.

And being found in human form, 

8   he humbled himself

     and became obedient 

     to the point of death—

   even death on a cross. 

9 Therefore God also highly exalted him

   and gave him the name

   that is above every name, 

10 so that at the name of Jesus

E P Sanders just shows Paul picking up traditions some of which just contradicted each other, “The two most substantial passages in which he commented on who Jesus was are Romans 1:1–6 and Philippians 2:5–11. In the first passage he states that Jesus was ‘descended from David according to the flesh and designated Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead’. The reader of this passage would understand that Jesus was ‘designated’ Son of God, and further that he was designated such only at the time of the resurrection. In later terminology, this is an ‘adoptionist’ Christology. Jesus was adopted by God as Son, not born that way.

   every knee should bend,

   in heaven and on earth 

     and under the earth, 

11 and every tongue should confess

   that Jesus Christ is Lord,

   to the glory of God the Father. 

(Philippians 2:6-11; Cf Isaiah 45:23-25)

The second passage goes to the other extreme. According to Philippians 2:5–11, Jesus was ‘in the form of God’ before he was born, but then he took on ‘the form of a slave, being born in the likeness of men’. The passage continues, ‘and being found in human form he humbled himself and became obedient unto death’. God ‘highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name’, that is, Lord. Here, strikingly, the word ‘Son’ does not appear. Instead one gets ‘form’: Jesus was in the form of God, then he was in the form of a slave, that is, he was in human form…..the passage basically states that Jesus Christ was pre-existent and was in some sense divine, but that he became human before being exalted even higher than he had originally been, to the status ‘Lord’.

One sees that it is impossible to derive from Paul’s letters anything approaching one single doctrine of the person of Jesus Christ. It is possible that both the passages just quoted are pre-Pauline in origin, in which case they show that he drew on, rather than composed, quite diverse statements, one offering a ‘low’ Christology, the other a ‘high’ Christology.” [4].

Resurrection creed

This creed has a number of indications that it was not Paul’s writing and is pre Pauline. There are grammatical formations that are foreign to Paul such as the verb “he appeared” to the “twelve”.

         The original creed is in vv.3-8. The second half of v.6 (“many of whom survive”) and all of v.8 (“last of all he appeared even to me….”) are Paul’s comments on the tradition. There are reasons for thinking the original creed was contained in vv.3-5., this produces a very tightly formulated, brilliantly structured creedal statement.

1a Christ died

 2b For our sins

  3c In accordance with the scriptures 

   4a and he was buried 

1b Christ was raised

 2b on the third day

  3b In accordance to the scriptures

   4b And he appeared to James.

(Ehrman has Cephas at the end of this creed but it could just as easily have been James as he is also mentioned and was the leader of the Jerusalem church according to Gal 2:12).

Conclusion

In conclusion to this blog I will reiterate the mythicist position as repeated by Carrier and show how easily it can be dismissed in three steps.

Carrier asks in one of his blogs, “When we sweep away all imaginary and hypothetical evidence and draw conclusions solely from actual evidence (and stop using fallacious, self-refuting arguments), we end up with at least one plausible alternative (as a dozen experts now agree): when Paul appears to say the only way anyone ever met Jesus is in visions, how it appears is how it was. That is in fact the simplest explanation of the evident facts. We can retool our hypothesis of historicity, add a bunch of ad hoc excuses for why Paul would only ever, and repeatedly, talk that way and no other, despite Jesus having recently been a renowned executed criminal who hand-picked his Disciples in life. And with that newly elaborate theory we can get the evidence in Paul at least to fit our new hypothesis. But that it fits does not make it the more probable. It rather only leaves us with at best a 50/50 chance it is what it seems, or it is what you have elaborately now proposed. So what evidence do you have that your newly elaborated theory is correct? You can’t circularly appeal to your hypothesis as evidence for your hypothesis. And you can’t fabricate evidence that doesn’t exist. So what then?” [5].

All this is quite easily answered,

1) Paul never says that is the only way people knew of Jesus. (Of course if a person is dead, the only way of contact from then on is through visions, but that was not the only ever way as Carrier insists. (When Jesus was alive as on the historicist hypothesis then obviously before he was executed you could have met him in person. Sorry to be so obvious but some obvious facts staring mythicists in the face have to be spelled out to them).

2) Only one passage refers to Paul getting his Gospel by Revelation.

3) This passage is about a specific salvific message of Jesus, not his life.

So really mythicism is only more probable with Carrier insisting on only his interpretations and his own readings into Paul’s epistles. It is much better let the epistles interpret themselves using comparable apocalyptic Jewish literature and attitudes of first century apocalyptic Jews so that these epistles will no longer sound so “weird” as Carrier often states. Given an examination of Paul’s sources, has more than sufficiently refuted the idea that Jesus was a revelatory being only.

(I wish to thank Christopher M. Hansen and Tim O’ Neill whose commentary in my Facebook group [6] helped immensely with this blog).

Back to HOMEPAGE

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[1] Lataster, Raphael, The Truth About ‘Historical Jesus’ in this link

http://theconversation.com/weighing-up-the-evidence-for-the-historical-jesus-35319

[2] Ehrman, Bart, Did Jesus Exist? The Historical Argument for Jesus of Nazareth, (Harper Collins, 2012), p.122.

[3] Bart Ehrman, How Jesus became God, ch4.

[4] E P Sanders, Paul: A Very Short Introduction, ch8

[5] Extract taken from this blog:

[6] https://www.facebook.com/groups/1038530526485151/

The Opponents of Paul as seen through Mirror Reading

PART 19 of my Historical Jesus series.

The most exciting scholarship on Paul is called “mirror reading”. As you know we only have one side of Paul’s conversation. How we know the “authentic 7” are genuine letters [1] is because reading those letters is like listening to one side of a telephone conversation. I say 7 in parenthesis as the 7 letters written by Paul are not necessarily literary units but instead more likely a mashing together of multiple letters. They don’t sound like fake letters, fake letters have well developed abstract treaties, these on the contrary are occasional, bad tempered and polemical. This provides endless fascination as attempts are made to reconstruct the situation that caused Paul to be so angry, why he insists he does not lie and why he told his opponents that he wished they would castrate themselves! (Gal. 5:12). When Paul says he’s not lying- that’s the sign Paul is answering opponents. (Gal. 9:20; Rom. 9:1;2 Cor.11:31). We are aware that Paul is battling powerful Opponents who are accusing him of all sorts of things. In the last part I showed that these opponents were actually quoting Jesus against him, We recognize that Paul is actually answering accusations being told to his congregations.

A certain mistrust always remained between Paul and the Jerusalem Assembly headed by James, between the former persecutor and now self proclaimed apostle. Much tension comes because Paul is a “Johnny come lately” and not among the original apostles. In “1 Cor. 15:3-8, which strongly suggests that Paul was never included in the official list of resurrection witnesses compiled by the church in Jerusalem.” [2] This is what is known as a pre Pauline tradition. [3] Paul “tries to explain his omission from the official apostolic witnesses on the grounds that he is the least of the apostles and unfit to be called an apostle because of his prior persecution of the church.”[4] He defends his apostleship right from the start of Galatians (Gal 1:1). Let us now show you the mirror reading that has been done on Paul’s letters by various scholars.

“I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.” (Gal 1:11-12)

          It is only when he is preaching his own gospel which opposes the Jerusalem council does he say he received it from a revelatory being – Jesus Christ. But of course he would say that as his gospel is in direct contradiction to the actual leaders of the movement. He needed a higher authority to counter the accusations that were being thrown at him.

The interpretation that Paul is insisting his gospel is much better than the gospel from the Jerusalem authorities has better explanatory power of Gal. 1:11-12 rather than that Jesus is a revelatory being only, which tends to be the crux of the Carrier-Doherty hypothesis. Being a revelatory being does not rule in one way or the other in favor of mythicism. You can just as easily have revelations of somebody who previously lived (which is exactly what is stated (2 Cor 5:16, Rom. 5:15, Gal 4:4, in fact there are too many damn human references to rule in mythicism’s favour in Paul’s letters) (see part 15). Paul is very emphatic about the fact that what he got from Jesus in visions was confirmed by what the apostles were already teaching. The only reason he says he gets things directly from visions was to put himself above the ‘pillars’.

           Paul set out this from the very start of his letter:

“Paul, an apostle—sent not from men nor by a man, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead.” (Gal 1:1)

By the tension contained in these letters you can tell that Paul’s personal credentials were being questioned especially as he was diverging from Jewish Law (or at least relegating it down a peg or two). Paul wanted to show that his gospel is of superior quality to those super apostles before him, that he got his gospel from a higher authority.

“Am I now trying to win the approval of human beings, or of God? Or am I trying to please people? If I were still trying to please people, I would not be a servant of Christ.” (Gal 1:10)

Paul rhetorically asks this as he claims that he does not have to please the ‘pillars’ of the Jesus movement but God alone. Yet with some mirror reading we can show the agitators [this is what Paul calls them] said that Paul received his gospel from the same Jerusalem authorities. (Gal. 1:18-2:9) and that they were only there to perfect Paul’s gospel (Gal. 4:21) with circumcision and observing cultivate festivals. (Gal. 4:10) [5]

The Galatian believers, largely of non-Jewish background (4:8), are being persuaded to adopt key elements of the Jewish cultural tradition — most dramatically (for the menfolk), circumcision (5:2-6; 6:12-13; cf. 5:12). Paul warns them of the implications of this move: a commitment to observe the whole Law (5:3). [6] It appears that they did not plan to oppose Paul or his theology directly but instead to offer a completion to it. This is evident in Gal. 3:3 where Paul angrily asks, ‘ Having started out with the Spirit, are you now finishing up with the flesh?’ [7]

Since Paul considers that the Galatians are being ’bewitched’ by the persuasion of his opponents (Gal. 3:1), and since the Galatians are turning all too quickly to the ‘other gospel’ (Gal. 1:6), it may be fair to conclude that, generally speaking, in answering the Galatians Paul is in fact countering the opponents themselves and their message.[8]

              From Paul’s own mouth….Peter pursues the mission to the Jews (Law observant); Paul pursues the mission to the Gentiles (Law-free) (Gal. 2:7) [9]. But as Martyn asks if there was a “possibility that at least some early Christian preachers directed their evangelistic message to Gentiles without surrendering observance of the Law, then one can think immediately of reasons why Paul and Luke would have suppressed evidence pointing to such activity.” As is obvious, the New Testament is the collection of the documents of the victorious party, Outside sources show there was a law observant missionaries to the gentiles, this is viewed against the background of Jewish Christianity. Sim recognizes the problem that “We have no documents directly produced by the Jerusalem church and its leading members.” but we are not completely in the dark about the other side. Martyn uses two second century sources from Jewish Christianity (or Christian Judaism) to corrobated a Law-observant mission to Gentiles. These are The Ascents of James and The Preachings of Peter, both letters are embedded in the Pseudo-Clementine literature. [10] Paul’s interlocutors are similar to those in extra biblical independent sources of Jewish Christians having a law observant mission to the gentiles. This is preserved in Jewish Christian literature. The Preachings of Peter cohere very well with Jewish Christian teachings and see Paul as the person  ‘who is my enemy’. Pauls opponents teachings are corroborated with the Ascents of James which also sees the law observant mission as grounded in genesis promise of ascendance of Abraham. Paul gets terribly interested in Abraham in Galatians and is answering a question not in Genesis. If it is not in Genesis it is more likely a response to the teaching of the opponents.

               Theissan also reconstructs where on the divergent spectrum of beliefs by Jews, at which point Paul and James were. Matthew Theissen discusses five major reactions of. different sets of divergent Jews and what positions they would take in relation to converting gentiles. [11] Here I will reproduce two of those positions, the one Paul belonged to and the other position his opponents took. The rift and polemics contained in Paul’s epistles all have to do with the gentile problem!

Now for two of the major position that Theissen discusses-

  1. Eschatological:

In 2nd century BCE the Animal Apocalypse provides a striking example of this pattern: at the eschaton, God transforms the gentiles, who are portrayed as unclean animals, into white bulls, that is, clean animals (1 Enoch 90.37–38).

Still they stay as gentiles.

For those called “Righteous gentiles”, there was the Noahide law that didn’t expect circumcision, nor did they have to follow anything but to live a righteous life and follow the seven Noahide laws and were assured a place in the hereafter.  

God does not transform them into Jews (sheep). They remain gentiles, but have now undergone a miraculous genealogical purification that makes them acceptable to God.

  1. Conversion:

The Jamesian arch, Paul’s opponents and only seen in Paul’s polemics had a different solution to the gentile problem. According to those who held this view, gentiles could and should become Jews, joining Israel in its worship of the one true God and adopting the entirety of the Jewish law as one’s way of life.

“As later rabbis observed, Genesis 17 links circumcision to God’s covenant with Abraham in an unparalleled way by mentioning ברית thirteen times in connection with the institution of circumcision (m. Ned. 3.11).”

The fact that Abraham figures prominently in both Galatians and Romans, Paul’s two letters that are most concerned about the possibility of gentiles adopting the Jewish law and the rite of circumcision, suggests that he was responding to a message that pointed to Abraham and his circumcision as a model for gentiles-in-Christ. 

So to counter the opponents throwing Abraham’s model circumcision, Paul insists “Abraham’s initial acceptance by God, the fact that he was already reckoned righteous at the stage in his story marked by Gen. 15.6, that is, prior to his subsequent circumcision (Gen. 17), as Rom. 4.9-11 makes clear.” [12] Abraham’s faith preceded his circumcision: it was thus that he could be held up as the spiritual father of the uncircumcised (Rom. 4:10-11). Indeed, the pronouncement of Abraham’s faith (Gen. 15) precedes that of his circumcision (Gen. 17). [13]

Paul says Jesus was under the law “born of a woman under the [Mosaic] law” (Gal 4:4).

It’s unusual to state that Jesus was under the law, unless Paul was yet again fighting the Jerusalem council who stated this very obvious fact. 

Those who want to impress people by means of the flesh are trying to compel you to be circumcised. The only reason they do this is to avoid being persecuted for the cross of Christ. (Gal 6:12)

Those in the movement that don’t make a full conversion, would be under threat from those Jewish neighbors (in trouble with people like Paul before he joined the movement) and would possibly be attacked. The teachers insisting that the converts get circumcised were acting from pressure of a zealous movements in Jerusalem in the lead up to the Roman Jewish war. This nationalistic swing affected the Jerusalem Assembly’s insistence that the Gentiles get circumcised. [14] Paul suggests that this was actually a change in policy on their part. (Gal. 2:3).

Paul also originally taught circumcision but has stopped. An earlier expression of Christianity. Paul coming out of the law observant (gal 5:11)

He was on the team of his opponents.

11 Brothers and sisters, if I am still preaching circumcision, why am I still being persecuted? In that case the offense of the cross has been abolished. (gal 5:11)

All this of course eventually blew up in The Antioch incident of Gal. 2:11-14, that I discussed previously in part 17.

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[1] Pauline letters that are authentic according to consensus Romans, 1 and 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, 1 Thessalonians, and Philemon.

[2] Sim, David C. “The Family of Jesus and the Disciples of Jesus in Paul and Mark: Taking Sides in the Early Church’s Factional Dispute.” in Paul and Mark, Comparative Essays Part I, Two Authors at the Beginnings of Christianity, Ed. Oda Wischmeyer, David C. Sim and Ian J. Elmer, ( 2014, de Gruyter), p.75.

[3] The original creed is in vv.3-8. The second half of v.6 (“many of whom survive”) and all of v.8 (“last of all he appeared even to me….”) are Paul’s comments on the tradition. There are reasons for thinking the original creed was contained in vv.3-5., this produces a very tightly formulated, brilliantly structured creedal statement.

1a Christ died

 2b For our sins

  3c In accordance with the scriptures 

   4a and he was buried 

1b Christ was raised

 2b on the third day

  3b In accordance to the scriptures

   4b And he appeared to James.

(Ehrman has Cephas at the end of this creed but it could just as easily have been James as he is also mentioned and was the leader of the Jerusalem church according to Gal 2:12).

For more on Pre Pauline traditions, see Bart Ehrman, How Jesus became God, ch4.

[4] Sim, ibid, p.77

[5] Jewett, Robert, The Agitators and the Galatian Congregation, New Testament Studies / Volume 17 / Issue 02 / January 1971, p. 207.

[6] Barclay, John M.G., Paul and the Gift, ch.11

[7] Jewett, Robert, ibid, p.208.

[8] Barclay, John M.G., Mirror-reading a polemical letter: Galatians as a test case, Department of Biblical Studies University of Glasgow, JSNT, 31 (1987), p.74-75.

[9] Martyn, J. L., (1985).  A  Law-Observant Mission to Gentiles:  The Background of Galatians. Scottish Journal of  Theology, 38, p.308

[10] ibid, p.309.

[11] Paul and the Gentile problem, Matthew Thessian, ch1.

[12] Dunn, James D. G.,The New perspective on Paul, (Eerdmans, 2005), p.47ff

[13] Lüdemann, Paul: The founder of Christianity (Prometheus, 2002)

[14] Jewett, Robert, ibid, p.204-206.

BACK TO HOMEPAGE

The brother of the Lord.

As a historicist, it is important not to presume the historicity of Jesus, so here I am going to examine one idiosyncratic phrase Paul uses in his letters.

These are the two passages that use the phrase “brother/s of the Lord”.

Don’t we have the right to take a believing wife along with us, as do the other apostles and brothers of the Lord and Cephas?

1 Cor. 9:5

I saw none of the other apostles except James, the brother of the Lord.

Gal. 1:19

First off the passage that has “the brother of the Lord” (Gal. 1:19) is staunchly debated by Carrier as indicating a fraternal brother, not the biological brother of Jesus. Carrier argues this on the basis of 1 Cor. 9:5 and then has an expose on a rather conjectured argument about how the title “brother of the Lord” would have denoted a place within the early Church hierarchy.

Let us break down why this passage that has “the brother of the Lord” (Gal. 1:19). 

Firstly when Paul says “brother of the Lord”, he means Jesus as the Lord. “Lord” clearly means Jesus. God himself is only mentioned previously as “God our father” not as “Lord” in Galatians. Jesus is the only one called Lord in Gal. 1. Paul refers to “Jesus the messiah” as the Lord as seen in 1 Cor. 8:6, “there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus the Messiah, through whom are all things and through whom we exist”.

            Let us now examine 1 Cor. 9:5 and see how the title “brother of the Lord” would have denoted a place within the early Church hierarchy. 

<<< “If Paul considered wives who were believers to be “sisters”, why wouldn’t you think Paul’s use of “brothers” in the same sentence would refer to male believers and not literal brothers of Jesus?”>>>>

μὴ οὐκ ἔχομεν ἐξουσίαν ἀδελφὴν γυναῖκα περιάγειν, ὡς καὶ οἱ λοιποὶ ἀπόστολοι καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ κυρίου καὶ Κηφᾶς;

Don’t we have the right to take a believing wife along with us, as do the other apostles and the Lord’s brothers and Cephas? (1 Cor. 9:5)

Note here Paul does not have the corresponding idiosyncratic “sisters of the lord”. When referring to normal believers, he never calls them “sisters of the lord” or “brothers of the lord.” Not once. Never. He also never calls common people, like Timothy or Luke “brothers of the lord” either. He only uses the phrase twice and the only named time is for James, who is also an apostle. These “brother/s of the Lord” are a distinct subgroup. And we have evidence for only one such sub-group that fits the bill – the actual brothers of Jesus.

It’s very easy to tell when somebody today is on about a generic term brother or an actual brother. All you have to say is “hey brother” and you know that is generic. Then if you say “my brother Ian”, well you can pick up straight away that is an actual brother. The same thing is going on here with Paul’s use of “the brother of the Lord”. 

Let us now see how the argument for fraternal brother fails on contextual grounds, as well as linguistic ones.

Firstly: Because Paul uses a very specific phrase – “brother/s of the Lord” and not just “brother/s”. And he mentions these “brother/s of the Lord” along with other believers, like Cephas etc., which shows they are some kind of sub-group of believers, distinct in some way.

For example in Philippians:

καὶ τοὺς πλείονας τῶν ἀδελφῶν, ἐν Κυρίῳ πεποιθότας τοῖς δεσμοῖς μου, περισσοτέρως τολμᾶν ἀφόβως τὸν λόγον τοῦ Θεοῦ λαλεῖν.

“And most of the brothers, in the Lord trusting by the chains of me more abundantly to dare fearlessly the word of god to speak.” (Phil. 1:14)

Paul uses “brothers in the lord” yet that is still not the same phrase as “brother of the Lord”. (ἀδελφὸν τοῦ Κυρίου).

As a side argument which I flesh out much better here, Paul uses “in Christ” as a phrase for believers. This is because this movement happens to be a spirit possession cult. Brothers in the Lord would be part of the same meaning as in Christ.

So Paul never uses “brother of the Lord” as a general statement. The mere fact he uses “brother” is irrelevant to the full phrase “brother of the Lord” which he only ever uses twice. That exact phrase, in fact, only occurs twice in the entire Pauline corpus, including the pseudepigraphical texts.

Secondly: there is no contextual evidence in either Gal. 1:19 or 1 Cor. 9:5 to suggest that Paul is talking of a generic group or title of Christian followers. The plural of 1 Cor. 9:5 (ἀδελφοὶ) would still correspond to the prevalent Christian traditions of Jesus having multiple brothers (Mark 6:3; John 2:12; Matt. 13:55). What also would mark these two passages off is that elsewhere, when referencing brothers or sisters, Paul never bothers to use such a title for them. Even in the pseudepigrapha, the language “brother of the Lord” is not used by any followers of Jesus of a specific class.

Thirdly: It also insinuates that James is an apostle, ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ Κυρίου, “But, of the other apostles, I saw none, other than [εἰ μὴ]  James, the Lord’s brother.” εἰ μὴ transliterated as “if not”  is an idiomatic expression denoting an exception to a previously established rule. Thus, James is an apostle. 

The most compelling reason that Paul meant brother is that he saw James as an apostle in Gal. 1:19 and distinguished him, he also distinguished Cephas from the Lords brothers in 1 Cor. 9:5. This means ‘brother of the Lord’ could not be a Christian title. Paul distinguishes between “apostle” and “brother of the Lord” implying that not all apostles are brothers of the Lord. The term is used to differentiate James from Cephas. To this, a counter argument may assert that Paul didn’t say “I saw no other apostles EXCEPT…” but that he actually said “I saw no other apostles, ONLY…” meaning Paul was not referring to James as an actual apostle, only as a regular Christian. The only tenable argument is that it should be translated “I saw no other apostles, *except* James the Lord’s brother”. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the verse makes it clear that Paul is referring to James as an apostle and that he is distinguishing between “apostles” and “brother of the Lord” so that we can reasonably assume Paul did not simply mean “baptized Christian” when he referred to James as “the Lord’s brother.” Shows this biological brother is also an apostle according to the verse. Some Bible translations, like the NIV, do say “only” and not “except.” In the original Greek text, I can say that it’s actually not that convoluted and the only reasonable way to translate it in English is “no other apostle except for James”.

So by examing other examples where Paul uses ei mē (εἰ μὴ), will leave no doubt how Paul used ei mē (εἰ μὴ) in Gal. 1:19, he used it to say except and that makes James an apostle.

• Galatians 6:14 “But far be it from me to boast except (ei mē) in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ…

• 1 Corinthians 1:14 “I thank God that I baptized none of you except (ei mē) Crispus and Gaius” 

• Philippians 4:15 “… no church entered into partnership with me in giving and receiving, except (ei mē) you only.” 

Moreover, the Greek word for “only” is monon, and this does not appear in Galatians 1:19 at all. Here are instances where Paul uses that word…

• Galatians 1:23 “They only (monon) were hearing it said…” 

• Galatians 3:2 “Let me ask you only (monon) this…” 

• Philippians 4:15 “… no church entered into partnership with me in giving and receiving, except (ei mē) you only (monoi).” 

Note that in Philippians 4:15, Paul uses both “except” and “only.”

A brother of the Lord is hence a biological brother.

So, in conclusion, I have yet to see any good argument that Galatians 1:19 should be interpreted “I saw no other apostles, *only* James the Lord’s brother.” The only tenable argument is that it should be translated “I saw no other apostles, *except* James the Lord’s brother”. Therefore, I think the correct interpretation of the verse makes it clear that Paul is referring to James as an apostle and that he is distinguishing between “apostles” and “brother of the Lord” so that we can reasonably assume Paul did not simply mean “baptized Christian” when he referred to James as “the Lord’s brother.”

 The appellative “the Lord’s brother,” does not designate a position within the Early Church hierarchy. The most plausible scenario, thus, is that it delineates James as Jesus’ biological brother.

Carrier is forced by these facts to resort to suppositions about imaginary sub-groups for which he has no evidence. But we have evidence for one such sub-group – Jesus’ siblings, including James. Paul commonly talks of brothers and sisters. When referring to normal believers, he never calls them “sisters of the lord” or “brothers of the lord.” Not once. He refers to no one else as specifically “the brother of the Lord”. The phraseology he uses there is exactly the same as how the gospels identify Andrew as “the brother of Simon”. Most of the time Paul uses more generic terms like “brothers in Christ”, “our brother”, or “brother so-and-so” when using “brother” in the generic sense. If Paul only meant “brother” in the generic sense in Gal 1:18-19 for James, it is odd that he doesn’t include Cephas in the category. The James here is more explicitly identified – i.e. this is the James known as “the brother of the Lord”. 

The simplest and most natural reading is Paul met Jesus’ brother and that implies a historical Jesus.

Let us now go through what Paul would say if James was only a fraternal brother:

Option 1 

‘I went to Jerusalem and didn’t meet any apostle other than Peter and James, a follower of Christ’.

“followers (imitator μιμηταί) of the Lord”, this is an attested reference to believers (though it’s more frequently used to describe “followers” of people) in 1Thesselonians1:6.

Here is a sample translation of what Paul would have wrote if he was not talking about a biological brother in Gal 1:19:

ἐλθὼν εἰς Ἱερουσαλὴμ, ἑτέρους δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ τὸν Πέτρον τε καὶ τὸν Ἰάκοβον τὸν μιμητήν τοῦ Χριστοῦ.

Option 2

If James was not a biological brother Paul would have said something like the following using the word brother:

ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον τὸν αδελφόν μας. (Our brother).

or he could have said:

ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον ἀδελφὸν ἐν Χριστῷ ( brother in Christ).

Paul never used “brother of the Lord” for a fraternal brother, not even once. 

Option 3

This is what he would not have written if James was a fraternal brother only, I only put this non feasible option in for comparison.

Gal 1:19

ἕτερον δὲ τῶν ἀποστόλων οὐκ εἶδον, εἰ μὴ Ἰάκωβον τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ Κυρίου.

So to sum up “Brother of the Lord” is used on two occasions: For James (who is also an apostle) in Gal. 1:19; For multiple “brothers of the Lord” 1 Cor. 9:5. The terms ‘our brother’ or ‘brother in Christ’ would be more likely to be used were James NOT intended to be indicated carnal brother.

These “brothers of the Lord” can be apostles (Gal. 1:19) or not (1 Cor. 9:5) which means that by process of elimination, this is not a position or station within Christianity. Therefore, a relative of Jesus is the most plausible answer.

Whenever Paul talks of fraternal brotherhood (i.e. “Christian” sense) he never uses the phrasing of “brother of the Lord”. The only related forms are in deutero-Pauline work:

ἀδελφὸς καὶ πιστὸς διάκονος ἐν Κυρίῳ (Eph. 6:21)

πιστοῖς ἀδελφοῖς ἐν Χριστῷ (Col. 1:2)

ἀδελφοὶ ἠγαπημένοι ὑπὸ Κυρίου (2 Thess. 2:13)

This is still radically distinct from Gal. 1:19 and 1 Cor. 9:5 however (cf. Ἰάκωβον τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ Κυρίου and οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ Κυρίου).

A final argument by Carrier can be put to bed too. He says “brother of the Lord” is a title for non-apostolic Christians, so Peter would be excluded. However, the whole idea is ludicrous. Paul, though zealous to make the case that he is an apostle, refers to himself as a brother, which totally refutes Carrier’s idea. Carrier reckons that if any element of the data could have 5:1 odds in its favour, it would tip the whole into 50%.

He assigns ‘brother of the Lord’ to 2:1 in favour of historicity. But if it were possible to assign it at 5:1 (eg from counting the relative frequency of an alternative term for a rank-and-file Christian other than ‘brother’, then this would be the clincher.)

From what is written in this blog, ‘our brother’ or ‘brother in Christ’ would be more likely to be used were James NOT intended to be indicated carnal brother. If its 5:1, even Carrier would have to agree.

(I wish to thank Tim O’Neill, whose arguments I have expanded on: https://historyforatheists.com/2018/02/jesus-mythicism-2-james-the-brother-of-the-lord/)

The killer argument taken from Tim’s blog is that there is no plausible answers from mythicists to these questions-

“The problem these examples pose for the idea that all of these references to “brothers” are figurative and simply means “fellow believers” is that in both Galatians 1:18-9 and 1Cor 9:5 the “brother/s of the Lord” are mentioned alongside and separate from other believers. In 1Cor 9:3-6 these “brothers of the Lord” are distinct from “the other apostles” and from “Cephas”, despite them being believers as well. And in Galatians 1:18-19 this “James, brother of the Lord” is somehow distinct from Cephas again, despite Cephas being a believer. So if these uses of ἀδελφός simply mean “a believer”, why this distinction? And why is it only to be found in the two examples where the word is not simply a form of ἀδελφός, but is part of the specific phrase “ἀδελφὸν/ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ Κυρίου” (brother/brothers of the Lord)?”

Looking up the LSJ or Perseus Digital Library shows how other ancients use the phrase τὸν ἀδελφὸν τοῦ [+name/title] (per Gal. 1:19) and οἱ ἀδελφοὶ τοῦ [+name/title] (per 1 Cor. 9:5) in their writings. All examples just show they always use it for a biological brother.

Then it is also easy to counteract the Catholic argument that was trying to perpetuate the virginity of Mary, the argument goes that James was only a cousin but the Evangelist use Adelphoi for brother and syngeneis for relatives.

Eg Luke 14:12 used Adelphous for brothers and syggeneis for relatives.

DIVORCE! Jesus was quoted against Paul by his opponents.

PART 18 of my Historical Jesus series.

Paul had many problems and his ekklesia of Corinth was on shaky ground but as Faith Robyn said, “ in 1 Corinthians, for example, Paul attempts to evoke a sense of unity among his addressees by invoking rhetoric about established groups. It does not follow that this supposed group was, in fact, cohesive.” [1] This image of cohesiveness was portrayed in Acts as it papered over the cracks of dissension and division. Acts like the exodus was an idyllic foundation myth of Christian origins. The letters of Paul “give us an impression of a movement that was not so well organised, a movement with diverse factions and competing theologies. In the Pauline communities, problems do not appear to be easily resolved. In these communities there are apostles, and Paul insists that he is one…..Acts is a charter myth, whose author composed an idyllic portrait of the early Jesus community. [2] The leadership of these communities relied on the charisma of those in charge.

Bart Ehrman sums up the problems of the Corinthian church very well in his Lost Christianities book:

“The community was experiencing serious disunity among its members, to the extent that some were taking others to court over their differences. There was chaos in the worship services, including their periodic communal meals, at which some members were gorging themselves and getting drunk while others had almost nothing to eat and drink. There were instances of gross immorality, including some men in the church visiting prostitutes and bragging about it in church and one other man living with his stepmother. And several genuine questions had arisen concerning proper behavior in this world: Is it right, for example, to eat meat that had already been sacrificed to pagan idols? And if bodily pleasure is to be restricted, is it permissible to have sex with your spouse?” [3]

When Paul keeps repeating- I do not lie, that is a sure sign of contention. That shows he’s fighting with the Jerusalem Council. Next we will examine where this Jerusalem Council quotes the words of Jesus against Paul.

Paul quotes Jesus on divorce

        “To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife. To the rest I say this (I, not the Lord): If any brother has a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to live with him, he must not divorce her.” (1 Cor. 7:10-12)

This is one of the few places where Paul quotes the words of Jesus as authoritative, with the same authority as scriptural authority. [4] He can’t be referring to the Hebrew Scriptures, because in the Tanakh it is acceptable for a man to divorce a woman (Deut. 24:1–4), so it can only be the words of Jesus here. Mosaic law included provisions regulating divorce even though in other places such as Mal. 2:16, it was not ideal.

So it’s obvious that saying can’t have come from the LORD in the Tanakh, so it can only have come from somebody whom Paul calls Lord – Paul refers to “Jesus the messiah” as the Lord as seen in 1 Cor. 8:6, “there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus the Messiah, through whom are all things and through whom we exist”.

It is important not to retroject the gospels back into Paul’s letters. It is important to recover Jesus’s teaching from First Corinthians only. As we know this teaching Paul quotes is not in the Hebrew Bible, it can only have come from the historical figure Paul refers to as the ‘Lord’. This can only be Jesus. For Jesus’ teaching on Divorce I do not use the gospels here- only the letter to the Corinthians, as the gospels are mostly later reworked traditions. Paul’s letters are the primary sources. [5]

            Chow examines the Greek of 1 Cor. 7:10-12, and has determined that Paul’s “peculiar reference to the situation of a divorced woman but not of a divorced man might indicate an actual case of a woman divorcing her husband.” [6] 

             Jesus has an absolute prohibition on divorce whereas “Paul then takes an intriguing turn as he overrides Jesus’ command by specifying when divorce is acceptable.” [7] among mixed marriages of believers and unbelievers:

“But if the unbeliever leaves, let it be so. The brother or the sister is not bound in such circumstances” (1 Cor 7:15)

Paul then applies this individual case to both women and men. Paul displays an awareness to distinguish between his own words and received traditions. Paul disagrees and differentiates the teaching of Jesus on divorce from his own. If Jesus was a figment of Paul’s imagination, this would hardly happen. (A figment of Paul’s imagination would actually agree with Paul – surprise, surprise 😀). This shows that this specific strict teaching on divorce was not received via revelation. As Jesus’ followers believed he was the Messiah, he therefore had the right to adjust the law and apparently at least even change it, for example, narrowing the margin of divorce. This is Jewish doctrine.

Yet Paul is not only dealing with the problems of his own congregation but with those of the Jerusalem Council. When Paul was dealing with a divorce case, Jesus was quoted against him by his opponents, (this we can determine through mirror reading dealt with next), that’s why Paul says ‘I, not the lord’.

Paul knows Jesus’ words are authoritative, so he’s at a loss when they are used against him. Paul in his usual charlatan way tries to get around them. When the Jerusalem council were checking up on Paul, Jesus’ words were quoted against him. There is no way Paul would bring up Jesus’ words that actually did not support him otherwise. Paul ruled one way and the people checking up on him told the congregations- that’s not what Jesus said at all!

Ian Mills in an interview with Derek Lambert had the following to say on this:

“[Paul] is confronting other people who are citing the teachings of Jesus against him. Look at Paul on marriage in first Corinthians, look at Paul on whether or not leaders deserve to be paid for their work. These are the places where Paul cites the teachings of Jesus and says I know Jesus taught that but I have reasons to do other things in these places. He is citing the teachings that everybody else knows is not his practice. Jesus taught certain things that did not accord with Paul in his practice and that is super interesting!” [8]

In 1 Cor. 1:12 Paul says “One of you says, “I follow Paul”; another, “I follow Apollos”; another, “I follow Cephas” still another, “I follow Christ.”- those shouting the slogan “I follow Christ – but not you Paul, would make sense here. Paul is battling to take control of tf communities he converts, he lost those in Galatia, he may have managed to hang onto Corinth. [9]

This leads us nicely to our next discussion (in the next part) on the exciting “mirror reading” scholarship that is unlocking the polemics of Paul’s letters.

—————————————————————

[1] Walsh, Robyn Faith, The origins of Early Christian Literature, Contextualizing the New Testament within Greco-Roman Literary Culture, (Cambridge, 2021), p.11.

[2] Tyson, Joseph B. “Acts, Myth, and History” in Acts and Christian Beginnings: The Acts Seminar Report, Ed. Dennis E. Smith and Joseph B. Tyson, (Polebridge, 2013), Introduction.

[3] Ehrman, Bart, Lost Christianities, The Battles for Scripture and the Faiths we never knew, (Oxford, 2003), p.210.

[4] In 1 Corinthians 7:10-12, Paul relays one of Jesus’ teachings about marriage and divorce. In 1 Corinthians 9:14, Paul relays one of Jesus’ teachings about financial support for missionaries. Paul tells us Jesus gave a message of reconciliation in 2 Cor. 5:19-21. Paul also shows that Jesus taught the end times in 1 Thess.4:15.

[5] Each gospels puts its own interpretation on Jesus’ teaching of Divorce, thus making Pauls report on Jesus teaching the primary source.

In Matthew an interpretation is put on Jesus’ lips that divorce is acceptable in the case of adultery.

5:31 “It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. (Cf Matt.19:9)

The parallels in Mark 10:11–12 and Luke 16:18 do not mention the exception of adultery. 

Some of Jesus’ strict adherence of Divorce law is reflected in the gospels, What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate” (Matt. 19:4–6; Mark 10:8–9).

In order to get around Mosaic law they have Jesus explain that Mosaic Law (Deut. 24:1–4) only existed because of peoples hardness of heart (Matt. 19:7–8; Mark 10:5; see Matt. 5:31–32).

Also of note and a reflection of later interpretations is when the Jesus states “And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery” in Mark 10:12, in response to the Pharisees’ question about divorce, this is an anachronism, as women did not have the right to initiate a divorce in Judaism at that time.

[6] Chow, Chak Him. “Paul’s Divergence from Jesus’ Prohibition of Divorce in 1 Corinthians 7:10–16” Open Theology, vol. 7, no. 1, 2021, p.172

[7] ibid, p.169.

[8] Ian Mills being interviewed by Derek Lambert on his Mythvision podcast, “Evidence for the Historical Jesus – Ian Mills”

[9] Adam’s White. Where is the wise man? Dissertation, (2013).

BACK TO HOMEPAGE

The Magi

Herod the Toparch, that is, the King of Judaea, was informed in that year that magicians from Persia had arrived and had entered the Judaean country (and ordered them seized) The magicians came from Persia, having been instructed by an announcement which they had received, for a star had appeared to them, which had announced to them that in the East Christ the Savior had become god-man. They brought him gifts as to a great victorious king.

John Malala, (Historian from Antioch in the sixth century), Chronography 10.229

Magi: Persian sages or religious leaders who practiced a mixture of sorcery and astrology. The Jewish people in New Testament times identified the sorcerers in Pharaoh’s court as magi (Exod. 7–9) along with Balaam (Num. 22–24) and Nebuchadnezzar’s ineffective dream interpreters (Dan. 2). In the New Testament, magi are found in Matthew 2; Acts 8:9–24; 13:6–12.

Mark Allan Powell, Introducing the New Testament (2nd Edition), p.7

The story of the Magi is found in Matthew 2:1-12, and Raymond Brown sees the framework for composition taken from the Balaam prophecy found in Numbers:

A narrative of magi from the East who saw the star of the King of the Jews at its rising and were led by it to Bethlehem. While this narrative reflects the general belief that the birth of great men was augured by astronomical phenomena, its immediate inspiration came from the story of Balaam in Num 22-24, a man with magical powers who came from the East and predicted that a star would rise from Jacob. [*]

Although the framework for the story was built upon the Tanakh, as most gospel narratives are ex eventu Tanakh allusions, the real inspiration for this story came from the Magi that attended Nero’s court.

‘Magi’ is a transliteration of the Greek word magos which in turn came from old Persian word magus (“powerful”), a term used for Zoroastrian priests and astrologers of the later Persian Empire. The story of the Magi in Matthews gospel [original meaning Zoroastrian priests and not wise men or Kings as understood by modern readers] may have been inspired by a visit of the Magi to Nero in worshipping Nero as a god.

There were many ‘buffer states’ between the two superpowers of the east- the Roman Empire and the Parthian Empire. States such as Armenia, Sophene, Gordyene, and Adiabene, etc were all Regna Minora of Northern Mesopotamia Between East and West. [1] Since the days of Cassius and his five legions who were wiped out by Parthia, Rome was wary of this superpower.
There was a major Roman–Parthian War (58–63 CE) over one such ‘buffer state’: Armenia. This was fought over Armenian succession, where the Roman client kingdom had lost out to Parthia in 52/53 CE, and Parthia had installed Tiridates as King.
In 60 CE, Corbulo [famous Roman general of Rhine fame, now legate of Syria] overcame the forces loyal to Tiridates and the unpopular Tigranes VI was appointed King of Greater Armenia. [2] All neighbouring buffer states were on the alert to support him militarily. Tigranes caused trouble with Adiebene, so Monobazus II of Adiabene got Vologaeses I of Parthia to help. Nero sent Paetus to annex Armenia in 63CE. This campaign was defeated by the Parthians, thus ensuring Tiradates became king. [3]
After the defeat of the Romans in Rhandeia in 62 CE, an arrangement was made between them and the Parthians, according to which the Romans recognized Tiridates as King of Armenia, and Tiridates agreed to come to Rome and receive his crown from the hands of Nero. [4]

Domitius Corbulo had achieved a compromise with the Parthians over Armenia (63 CE): Tiridates, brother of the Persian king Vologeses I, could rule Armenia if he put aside his diadem and received it in Rome—in 66 CE, as it happened—from the hand of Nero (Dio 62.23.3; 63.4.1). [5]
“Both in Apollonius of Tyana (Life I.4) and Matthews birth narrative were “inspired by the visit of Tiridates I [of Arminia] and his train to Nero that culminated in their reverencing him as a god. Matthew’s tale belongs to a body of material that attributes to Jesus titles and claims characteristic of the Emperors and their cults. People said that Tiridates and his magi had initiated Nero in their mysteries and secret meals. The gospel story implies that Jesus needed no initiation: he was the predestined ruler of the magi, as well as of the Jews; but unlike the ignorant Jews the magi knew this. They understood the star that signalled his coming and came themselves to meet him, make their submission, and offer the gifts due their ruler.” [6]
Cassio Dio reports a story of three Anatolian client Kings turning up at Neros birth and announcing, “Master I am a descendent of Arsacres, brother of the kings Vologaseus and Pacorus, and your slave. And I have come to you, my God, to worship you as I do Mithras.” When they were done they went back to their country by another way, much like Matthew said of the Magi. (Cassio Dio, Roman History LXIII.5.2).

“The picture of magi coming from the East to pay homage to a king and bring him royal gifts (vs. 11) would not have struck Matthew’s readers as naively romantic. When King Herod completed the building of Caesarea Maritima in 10-9 B.C., envoys from many nations came to Palestine with gifts (Josephus Ant. XVI v 1;##136-41). In A.D. 44 Queen Helen of Adiabene, a kingdom that paid tribute to the Parthians, converted to Judaism and came to Jerusalem with bounteous gifts for those affected by the famine which was devastating the land. In A.D. 66 there took place an event that captured the imagination of Rome (Dio Cassius Roman History Ixiii 1-7; Suetonius Nero 13). Tiridates, king of Armenia (a kingdom that was neighbor to Commagene-came to Italy with the sons of three neighboring Parthian rulers in his entourage. Their journey from the East (the Euphrates) was like a triumphal procession. The entire city of Rome was decorated with lights and garlands, and the rooftops filled with onlookers, as Tiridates came forward and paid homage to Nero. Tiridates identified himself as a descendant of Arsaces, founder of the Parthian Empire, and said, “I have come to you, my god, to pay homage, as I do to Mithras.” .After Nero had confirmed him as king of Armenia, ”the king did not return by the route he had followed in coming,” but sailed back a different way. It is significant that Pliny (Natural History XXX vi 16-17) refers to Tiridates and his companions as magi.” [7]
The three gifts they bring are symbolic:

“gold, as to a king; myrrh, as to one who was mortal; and incense, as to a God.” (Origen, Contra Celsum 1.60)

Gold is obvious, a gift fit for a king. Myrrh was used as an embalming ointment, a symbol of his death and frankincense an incense, as a symbol of deity. The Syrian King Seleucus I Nicator is recorded to have offered gold, frankincense and myrrh (among other items) to Apollo in his temple at Didyma near Miletus in 288/7 BC. (Greek inscription RC 5 (OGIS 214))

————————————————

[*] Raymond Brown, The Birth of the Messiah: : a commentary on the infancy narratives in Matthew and Luke: new updated edition, (First published 1993), p.117

[1] Michał Marciak, Sophene, Gordyene, and Adiabene, Three Regna Minora of Northern Mesopotamia Between East and West, (Brill, 2017).

[2] Tigranes was grandson to Alexander (Marimeme I’s son strangled by Herod the Great).

[3] Kokkinos, The Herodian Dynasty, (Spink, 2010), p.248-250; cf Tacitus Annals 14-15.28.

[4] Menahem Mor, The Second Jewish Revolt, The Bar Kokhba War, 132–136 CE,
p.11

[5] Steve Mason, Judean War 2, p6.

[6] Morton Smith, Jesus the Magician, p.96.

[7] Raymond Brown, The Birth of the Messiah, p.174.

The evidence of the variants of the TF.

PART 2 of my Historical Jesus series

(Updated 1st July 2025)

  1. Final redaction = Textus Receptus found in all Greek manuscripts of Antiquities by Josephus.

Sample phrase “He was the Christ” (this phrase was written by a later redactor than Eusebius).

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2. Middle redaction = close to Michael the Syrians recension. The Arabic recencion, the Syriac translation of Eusebius Church History (especially the British manuscript variant and Jerome will also be discussed as these are relevant witnesses. – Eusebius is suspected of being the middle redactor).

Sample phrase “He was thought to be the Christ” (This was redacted by Eusebius).

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3. Pre-Eusebian = A SOURCE used by Origen, the Slavonic, De Excidio and of course used by Eusebius.

Missing the sample phrase.

——————————————————————

1. FINAL REDACTION

Let’s start with the Testimonium Flavianum before looking at the variants:

There arose about this time Jesus, a wise man if indeed one ought to call him a man. For he was a doer of strange deeds and a teacher to those who receive the truth with pleasure. And many of the Jews and many of Greek element he led to himself. He was the Christ. And when at the indictment of the first men among us, Pilate had sentenced him to a cross, those who had in the first place come to love him did not give up their affection for him. On the third day, he appeared to them restored to life, for the prophets of God had prophesied these and countless other marvellous things about him. And the tribe of the Christians, so called after him, has still to this day not disappeared (Josephus, Ant. 18.63-64).

2. MIDDLE REDACTION

To much fanfare back in 1971 Shlomo Pines released a book on the Arabic recension of the TF thinking that parts of it were going back to the original TF, or closer to it.[1] This TF recension was in a tenth century Arabic historical work contained in the book “Kitāb al-Únwān” (Book of History) a chronicle of the history of the world up to the 10th century written by Agapius, who was the Melkite bishop of Manbij (Hierapolis). It is closer to Josephus as it is more primitive than the Textus Receptus found in all Greek manuscripts of Antiquities. The Arabic gave no hint to the divinity of Jesus, nor made an assertion that Jesus was the Christ. The Arabic is a valuable witness in diminishing the assertion that Jesus was the Christ as it is unlikely that this recension would have downgraded this. As T. C. Schmidt refuting Hansens arguments, showed Muslims actually call Jesus the Messiah (Quran 4.171)[2] Similarily Jerome’s mention saying “he was believed to be the Christ” would be a copy from an earlier form if the TF rather than a downgrade of this phrase. Christians don’t usually downgrade their claims of Christ. So there would have been no softening of claims here. The Arabic also stated the resurrection as a report rather than a fact.

Shlomo Pines had also discovered a 12th-century Syriac version of the Testimoniumin in chronicle of Michael the Syrian. This book was called ܙܒܢܐ ܡܟܬܒܢܘܬ (Record of Times) written by the historian and patriarch of the Syriac Orthodox: Michael circa 1199CE. Alice Whealey has proved that Michael the Syrian’s recession is even more valuable than Agapius’ version as the Arabic is a paraphrase and Micheael’s was a literal copy. She proved this as she showed Michael the Syriac recension used the same source as the Arabic had used.[3] 

According to Whealey the Arabic and Michael the Syrian do stem from what Eusebius wrote. (What Eusebius originally wrote we no longer have). It is just that some of the variants (Arabic, Michael the Syrians, Syriac translations of Eusebius and some Latin variants) used earlier forms of the TF as a source than the form witnessed by the textus receptus. Even though these earlier versions only get it back to what Eusebius originally wrote, (what I call the middle redaction) they are still useful as they show that Eusebius would never have written in ‘certain man’ instead of ‘Jesus’ if he made it up from scratch- as one variant of a Syriac manuscript witnesses. (MS British Library Add. 14,639).

Although the Chronicle of Michael the Syrian dates to nearly three centuries later than Agapius, he too reports a version of the TF that is more primitive than the received text (textus receptus) of Antiquities. Whealey has found Michael recension more valuable as it is a literal copy as opposed to Agapius which happens to be a paraphrase. Michael was born in 1126 and was Patriarch of Antioch from 1166 to 1199; he thus lived more than three centuries after Agapius.

Both Agapius’ and Michael’s chronicles. have a common source, now lost, of the Syriac chronicle of the Maronite Christian, Theophilus of Edessa (d. 785) This contained a narrative account of the seventh- and eighth-century Muslim conquests of the Roman Near East. T.C Schmidt sees an earlier source from Edessa as the common source that is the now lost Chronicle of Jacob of Edessa’ (c. 708CE). “in the preface of Michael’s Record of Times (preserved only in Armenian) he says, ‘First we must mention the names of the historians from which we will be gathering the material for our structure’. Among several sources, Michael lists Eusebius and Josephus, but then says that ‘the blessed Jacob of Edessa made an abridgement of all these’ (Եւ սուրբն Յակովբ ուռհայեցին համառօտ ընդ ամենն էանց).[4] He also says that Jacob of Edessa probably used both the Syriac translation and Josephus as a source for the TF.

Agapius (who wrote the Arabic recension) himself claimed that his own chronicle was based on the Syriac chronicle of Theophilus of Edessa (d. 785), this work itself was probably dependant on the earlier work of Jacob of Edessa. Michael the Syrian’s chronicle broadly parallels Agapius’ chronicle for the same period from creation to about 780, with the two chronicles being particularly close for the period from the first Muslim conquests of the Roman Near East to about 780. Michael the Syrian used the chronicle of Dionysius of Tellmahre (Monophysite patriarch of Antioch 818–848) Dionysius himself acknowledged that he drew on the work of Theophilus of Edessa – the same source as Agapius.

For Agapius’ relatively brief chronicle is clearly an abbreviated paraphrase of a longer source, while the section of Michael’s chronicle that parallels Agapius’ chronicle, from creation to the eighth century, is much longer and it frequently quotes entire sources verbatim. This suggests that Agapius’ Testimonium (the Arabic) was also a paraphrase rather than a verbatim quotation of its original Syriac source.

It has been observed that material in Michael’s account of the first century was dependent on a source that had quoted excerpts of Josephus from the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica rather than translate them directly from Josephus’ works. 

It is much more probable that these distinctive common elements simply reflect the nature of the literal translation of the Testimonium that was taken from the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica by the common source that both Agapius and Michael followed, the former loosely and the latter literally. The most significant common elements are that both Agapius and Michael qualify the Testimonium’s statement about Jesus being the Messiah, and that both make a more explicit reference to Jesus’ death than the textus receptus Testimonium. (Current copy found in both Josephus MSS and MSS of the Greek Ecclesiastical History by Eusebius).

Whealey argues that Agapius’ Testimonium is a loose paraphrase of the Testimonium from the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica while Michael’s Testimonium is a literal rendition.

Both the Agabius and Michael the Syrians versions both stem from Eusebius original version (his original copy which we don’t have now)! This we know because the common source Jacob of Edessa had used the Syriac translation of Eusebius. Michael the Syrians is very close to the Syriac Ecclesiastical History.

So to sum up, Eusebius added the phrase “he was thought to be the Christ” and also the term “Christians” to the middle redaction and possibly a few creeds. But Eusebius had originally opened the TF with, “There arose about this time a certain man”- this variant is witnessed by a Syriac translation of Eusebius, the physical copy of which is 6th century four centuries earlier than the physical Greek manuscripts of Eusebius (10th century). This shows later scribes added “Jesus” in place of “certain man.”

Michael the Syrians version which is more “primitive” than this Textus Receptus is close to this middle redaction of the TF, ie it is close to what Eusebius wrote. This is known as Michael the Syrians version actually originally came from a Syrian version of Ecclastica Historia. This was the book by Eusebius, therefore this version came from an Eusebian version that Eusebius originally wrote. This original Eusebius version is a version we no longer have but is probably accurately represented by Michael the Syrians version.

In a response to Ken Olson, Whealey was under the impression that the original TF is only minimally different from the textus receptus.[5] T. C. Schmidt also tries to keep the TF intact but really both Schmidt and Whealey really only get the TF back to what Eusebius wrote- what David Allen terms as the middle redaction. As we have shown the variant ‘certain man’ was in the place where the name ‘Jesus’ was in the TF that Eusebius reproduced before later scribes changed this- shows us that Eusebius used an earlier form of the TF circulating at this time. Ironically it was from Whealey’s own brilliant scholarship that this minimally changed version was proved to be from the hand of Eusebius! In other words this is the middle redaction by Eusebius and the textus receptus is actually a later redaction (redacted after Eusebius). How she proved this (without realizing it!) was by showing more primitive recensions of the textus receptus that came from the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica stemming from the hand of Eusebius.[6] So her argument of minimal change shows the more primitive version of the TF actually written by Eusebius. As Eusebius would never have written ‘certain man’ if he made up the passage from scratch – shows us that Eusebius used an earlier form of the TF circulating at that time. What Whealey does not seem to realize is the version of the TF that she is arguing against Olson originally came from the hand of Eusebius! I have showed in my paper that we actually have three redactions of the TF. “We can see three layers of redaction at play here, firstly from the original the hand of Josephus as per Paget’s arguments and the variant “certain man” from the Syriac translation of Eusebius actually is the smoking gun and proves an earlier form of the TF. Secondly Eusebius: from Olson’s scholarship only support Eusebian tampering, not a creatio ex nihilo. Thirdly, scribes who changed the TF after Eusebius’ tampering. Whealey shows more primitive recensions than the textus receptus – both the Arabic and Michael the Syrian that that used a sourc (Theophilus of Edessa (Whealey) or Jacob of Edessa (Schmidt) that had in turn used the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica, so these witnesses show us what Eusebius originally wrote. This is the middle redaction.

We have a very early variant that has ‘certain man’ in the place of ‘Jesus’ for its recension of the TF.[7] This variant comes from one of the manuscripts of the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica, this manuscript is MS British Library Add. 14,639. This variant is the harder reading making it more likely that it was the original. This proves ‘certain man’ was originally in Eusebius’s recension as the Syriac is a translation of Eusebius’s book Church History. As Eusebius would never have written ‘certain man’ if he was responsible for making up the TF from scratch, this variant proves Eusebius copied that phrase from his own source. That source was an earlier form of the TF that was circulating at that time.

As there is a variant of ‘certain man’ in place of ‘Jesus’ in one of these Syriac manuscripts shows us that ‘certain man’ was in this middle redaction.

        Michael the Syrians recension is very important for my reconstruction because it at least gets us back to what Eusebius originally wrote. 

Here is Michael the Syrians rendition:

The writer Josephus also says in his work on the institutions of the Jews: In these times there was a wise man named Jesus, if it is fitting for us to call him a man. For he was a worker of glorious deeds and a teacher of truth. Many from among the Jews and the nations became his disciples. He was thought to be the Messiah [or Perhaps he was the Messiah] . But not according to the testimony of the principal [men] of [our] nation. Because of this, Pilate condemned him to the cross, and he died. For those who had loved him did not cease to love him. He appeared to them alive after three days. For the prophets of God had spoken with regard to him of such marvellous things [as these]. And the people of the Christians, named after him, has not disappeared till [this] day.

This would be close to what Eusebius wrote except for a few translation issues, instead of nations, Eusebius would have written Greeks, “Both Michael and the Syriac Historia Ecclesiastica use ‘nations’ to translate the Greek Testimonium’s, tou Hellēnikou. This middle redaction by Eusebius showing Eusebius added ‘he was thought to be the Christ” and “Christians”. Feldman writes, ‘The passage refers to Christianon apo toude (‘the tribe of the Christians’)  but it is unlikely that Josephus referred to the Christians as a new nation, distinct from Jews and gentiles. The word “Christians” is found nowhere else in the works of Josephus.[8] Another phrase eis eti te nyn (‘still to this day’) is never found in Josephus except in the TF. It is a Eusebian phrase, Josephus usually wrote— eti kai nyn (‘until now’)[9]. Whealey notes an earlier reading of that phrase, in “[the] two oldest manuscripts containing Book XVIII of Antiquities, A and W, read eis te nyn instead of eis eti te nyn. Whealey finds more indirect evidence that this was more original to the TF[10]. So Whealey concludes “While eis eti te nyn is indeed more typical of Eusebius than Josephus, it is far from clear that eis eti te nyn was the original reading of the Testimonium as there is also good evidence for eis te nyn [11].” Of course having an earlier form of the phrase eis eti te nyn exposes a pre Eusebian layer. As noted by Whealey and Paget, Josephus probably used the phrase “until now”, where Eusebius had changed this to his own idiosyncratic phrase “still to this day.”[12]

As discussed above a Syriac manuscript that copied out of Eusebius had the variant ‘certain man’. (MS British Library Add. 14,639). Therefore ‘certain man’ instead of ‘Jesus’ was in Eusebius’ copy.

One more witness I will discuss for this middle redaction- Jerome’s. Jerome’s recension had ‘he was believed to be the Christ’ which shows it is earlier than the textus receptus TF. Jerome’s recension was known to have used Eusebius’s version as Jerome literally copied it from the Historia ecclesiastica. Jerome let’s us know that it was Eusebius’ History (H.E.) that he copied it from as he says himself: “that Eusebius Pamphilus in the ten books of his Church History has been of the utmost assistance” (De Viris Illustribus 13). Interestingly, in two manuscripts of Rufinus’s translation of Eusebius’s Historia ecclesiastica, the same phrase is used.[13] Pollard observed, ‘the Latin manuscripts are generally much earlier than the surviving copies of the Greek original, meaning that we need to know the Latin before we can restore Josephus’ Greek.’[14] In Jerome’s Latin recension it says “he was believed to be the Christ” which shows it is earlier than the textus receptus found in Josephus Antiquities. Jerome’s recension was known to have used Eusebius’ version as Jerome literally copied it from Eusebius’ History (H.E.). Interestingly in two manuscripts of Rufinus’ translation of Eusebius’s H.E., the same phrase is used. “By far the most interesting variant in the texts we are discussing is the reading et credebatur esse Christus (“he was believed to be the Christ”) for Christus hic erat (“he was the Christ) which is found in two manuscripts of Rufinus currently in the Bayerische Staatsbibliothek: Clm 6383 from the late eighth century and Clm 6381 from the early ninth century.”[15]

The SYRIAC TRANSLATION OF EUSEBIUS: MS British Library Add. 14,639

While the Slavonic is a very late witness, the Syriac translation of Eusebius is the earliest we have. This makes the Syriac translation the earliest witness of this particular variant of a ‘certain man’ very valuable and almost a certainty that ‘certain man’ was the original reading instead of the name Jesus that later scribes added to Eusebius’ manuscripts. The Syriac translations happen to be the oldest manuscripts we have that contain the TF. One of the earliest of which is in the National Library of Russia, Codex Syriac 1 which dates to 462 CE. Therefore we have a fifth century manuscript of the Eusebius’ Ecclesiastical History in Syriac, and and is the oldest physical manuscript that contains the Testimonium Flavianum. Although Eusebius wrote Ecclesiastical History circa 313 CE and his Theophanycirca 325/ 6 CE, our physical manuscripts are actually late. (Our earliest of Eusebius Greek manuscripts are in the 10th century and are tampered with).

The physical Syriac manuscript of Ecclesiastical History that contains the variant ‘certain man’ is from the 6thcentury, the manuscript is MS British Library Add. 14,639. So we have the Syriac that actually witnesses earlier phrases that were originally written by Eusebius. According to David Allen, Eusebius original version is known as the middle redaction of the Testimonium Flavianum.[16] The TF was tampered before, by and after Eusebius, all can be seen from textual variants.

3. PRE-EUSEBIAN

The pre-Eusebian first redaction is shown from the following variants – Origen, the Slavonic and De Excidio. In one of my papers I have tracked at least three redactional layers in the TF.[17] These layers can be seen more easily from the Latin manuscripts. In the textus receptus (“received text” of Antiquities) we have the phrase “He was the Christ”.  These variants are missing the example phrase taken in the final redaction – “he was the Christ” and the middle redaction – “he was thought to be the Christ”.

Origin, Contra Celsum 1.47

As noted by Zvi Baras, Origen contradicts what Eusebius wrote into the TF, [“he was believed or thought to be the Christ”] which shows, “a clear contradiction cannot be pushed aside; one is therefore bound to conclude that the text of the Testimonium was tampered with—a conclusion corroborated also by modern scholarship.[18] Christopher Hansen using Olson’s argument, has questioned this argument, “This is, of course, a faulty argument for it would be easily surmised by any Christian that a Jewish author like Josephus would not consider Jesus the Messiah.”[19] Ironically this argument instigated by Olson and used by Hansen actually turns out to be faulty. Olson imports the argument that Origen wanted to find a non Christian to support his argument, therefore he emphasised that Josephus did not believe Jesus was the messiah for this effect. It was common knowledge that Josephus was non Christian so there is no need for Origen to do this. More than likely what happened is that Origen digressed onto the TF, where his version did not have the statement “he was the messiah.” It becomes more likely that Origen digressed onto the TF when we take the next passage in Contra Celsuminto play:

‘For the Jews do not connect John with Jesus, nor the punishment of John with that of Christ’ (Cels. 1.48). In Antiquities it does not connect the Baptist movement with the Jesus movement. Also in Antiquities, the execution of John (beheading) is different from the execution of Jesus (crucifixion). Therefore, these two passages taken together (Cels. 1.47, 48) show that Origen used Antiquities in his fights with Celsus.[20]

In his digression Origen milks the TF for what it’s got stating since they “put to death Christ, who was a prophet,”  and then complains “he ought to say that” these things happened “because they killed the prophet Christ.”  He says “although against his will” (καὶ ὥσπερ ἄκων) that these things happened because of James. Giuseppe Ferri in Early Christian Writings has an interesting discussion on that phrase. [*]. That Origen is using the TF is actually backed up when we realise that Pseudo-Hegesippis also used a similar TF that was also missing the phrase “he was the Christ.” I will discuss this below but first let us examine Olson’s argument in detail. In order to make his argument Olson uses Cels. 6.41 to equate this with the statement “although not believing in Jesus as the christ” with “Moiragenes … , who is not a Christian, but a philosopher.”[21]

Let us examine this passage in detail

“Origen is trying to argue against the following accusation by Celsus:

having become acquainted with one Dionysius, an Egyptian musician, the latter told him [Celsus], with respect to magic arts, that it was only over the uneducated and men of corrupt morals that they had any power, while on philosophers they were unable to produce any effect, because they were careful to observe a healthy manner of life. (Cels. 6.41)

Origen answers with the following:

that any one who chooses to inquire whether philosophers were ever led captive by it [i. e. Magic] or not, can read what has been written by Moiragenes regarding the memoirs of the magician and philosopher Apollonius of Tyana, in which this individual, who is not a Christian, but a philosopher, asserts that some philosophers of no mean note were won over by the magic power possessed by Apollonius, and resorted to him as a sorcerer; and among these, I think, he especially mentioned Euphrates and a certain Epicurean. (Cels. 6.41)

There is no such argument in Cels. 1.47 to argue against like we have in Cels. 6.41, on why Origen should bring up the phrase “not believing in Jesus as the Christ.” That is the imported interpretation of Olson. Origen has to state that Moiragenes is not a Christian to counteract the accusation of Celsus and not sound like a Christian apologist showing Celsus was wrong. This is not what’s going on in Cels. 1.47. And what’s going on in Cels. 6.41 is not what is going on in the Commentary on Mattheweither. This is why Feldman noted the following, “More­ over, it makes no sense for Origen to express wonder (Commentary on Matthew 10:17) that Josephus did not admit Jesus to be the messiah if Josephus did not even mention him.”[22]

Contra Celsum 1.47 passage:

I would like to say to Celsus, who represents the Jew as accepting somehow John as a Baptist, who baptised Jesus, that the existence of John the Baptist, baptizing for the remission of sins, is related by one who lived no great length of time after John and Jesus. For in the 18th book of his Antiquities of the Jews, Josephus bears witness to John as having been a Baptist, and as promising purification to those who underwent the rite. Now this writer, although not believing in Jesus as the Christ, in seeking after the cause of the fall of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple, whereas he ought to have said that the conspiracy against Jesus was the cause of these calamities befalling the people, since they put to death Christ, who was a prophet, says nevertheless — being, although against his will, not far from the truth— that these disasters happened to the Jews as a punishment for the death of James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus (called Christ), — the Jews having put him to death, although he was a man most distinguished for his justice.  Paul, a genuine disciple  of Jesus, says that he regarded this James as a brother of the Lord, not so much on account of their relationship by blood, or of their being brought up together, as because of his virtue and doctrine. If, then, he says that it was on account of James that the desolation of Jerusalem was made to overtake the Jews, how should it not be more in accordance with reason to say that it happened on account (of the death) of Jesus Christ, of whose divinity so many Churches are witnesses, composed of those who have been convened from a flood of sins and who have joined themselves to the Creator, and who refer all their actions to His good pleasure.

 

Pseudo-Hegesippus, De excidio urbis Hierosolymitanae 2.12 [“On the ruin of the city of Jerusalem”]:

The most interesting of the Latin variants is the De excidio, written by Pseudo-Hegesippus. This Christianised Latin adaptation of Josephus’ War is independent of Eusebius. As Paget states:

“The importance of this reference lies in the fact that Pseudo-Hegesippus writes independently of Eusebius. This is made clear by the fact that he refers to Josephus’ account of John the Baptist after the TF, following the Josephan order and not the Eusebian order as we find it in HE, and at an earlier point in the same book (2.4) [cf Ant.18.3.4] refers to the Paulina incident which Eusebius never mentions.”[23]

De excidio was created out of the Greek War in c. 370 CE, but it is known that this author had direct access to Antiquities, not only from Paget’s points but also from the report of pestilence which followed Herod’s execution of his wife Mariamne (1.38; cf. Ant. 15.7, 9). This paraphrase does not blame Pilate for crucifying Jesus (which could be explained by the general trend of Pseudo-Hegesippus taking the blame off the Romans and placing it onto the Jews) nor does it state that Jesus was the Messiah. ‘It is not easy to see why he should have omitted any reference to Jesus as the Messiah if it was in his version of the received text. After all, he appears to exaggerate the significance of the TF, most blatantly in his claim that even the leaders of the synagogue acknowledged Jesus to be God.’[24] If the statement ‘he was the Christ’ was in Pseudo-Hegesippus’s received text he would have used that exact phrase. Jerome’s recension had ‘he was believed to be the Christ’ which shows it is earlier than the TF. Jerome’s recension was known to have used Eusebius’s version as Jerome literally copied it from the Historia ecclesiasticaDe Excidio was created out of the Greek Jewish War in circa 370, but it is known that this author had direct access to Antiquities, not only from Paget’s points but also the report of pestilence which followed Herod’s execution of his wife Mariamne (1.38; cf Ant. 15.7,9). This paraphrase does not mention that Jesus was the messiah. “It is not easy to see why he should have omitted any reference to Jesus as the Messiah if it was in his version of the received text. After all, he appears to exaggerate the significance of the TF, most blatantly in his claim that even the leaders of the synagogue acknowledged Jesus to be God.”[25] If the statement “he was the Christ” was in Ps-Hegissipius’ received text he would have used that exact phrase.

The importance of the De Excidio usage of the TF is that his received text from Antiquities was prior to Eusebian tampering. As Nussbaum states:

In De excidio Hierosolymitano 2:12, Pseudo-Hegesippus paraphrases the TF, omitting the statement that Jesus was the Christ. He then vehemently criticises Josephus that he testified of Jesus, but did not believe in him as the Christ. It can be concluded that Pseudo-Hegesippus must have read a kind of TF, otherwise he would not have screamed that Josephus did not believe despite his report on Jesus. The situation is reminiscent of Origen writings – he wrote that Josephus did not believe in the messiahship of Jesus.[26]

To sum up Jerome’s recension has “he was believed to be Christ” which is what Eusebius wrote into the TF. The other Latin translation De Excidio is a paraphrase but what makes this interesting is that he took from a copy of Antiquities before Eusebius tampered with it. It means that one Latin translation of Jerome is before the textus receptus but after Eusebius. The other Latin translation of Ps-Hegesippus is before both the textus receptus and before Eusebius tampering.

Pseudo-Hegisippus recension

They indeed paid the punishments of their crimes, who after they had crucified Jesus the judge of divine matters, afterwards even persecuted his disciples. However a great part of the Jews, and very many of the gentiles believed in him, since they were attracted by his moral precepts, by works beyond human capability flowing forth. For whom not even his death put an end to their faith and gratitude, on the contrary it increased their devotion. And so they brought in murderous bands and conducted the originator of life to Pilatus to be killed, they began to press the reluctant judge. In which however Pilatus is not absolved, but the madness of the Jews is piled up, because he was not obliged to judge, whom not at all guilty he had arrested, nor to double the sacrilege to this murder, that by those he should be killed who had offered himself to redeem and heal them. About which the Jews themselves bear witness, Josephus a writer of histories saying, that there was in that time a wise man, if it is proper however, he said, to call a man the creator of marvelous works, who appeared living to his disciples after three days of his death in accordance with the writings of the prophets, who prophesied both this and innumerable other things full of miracles about him from which began the community of Christians and penetrated into every tribe of men nor has any nation of the Roman world remained, which was left without worship of him. If the Jews don’t believe us, they should believe their own people. Josephus said this, whom they themselves think very great, but it is so that he was in his own self who spoke the truth otherwise in mind, so that he did not believe his own words. But he spoke because of loyalty to history, because he thought it a sin to deceive, he did not believe because of stubbornness of heart and the intention of treachery. He does not however prejudge the truth because he did not believe but he added more to his testimony, because although disbelieving and unwilling he did not refuse.

Five points need to be stressed with this variant of the Testimonium Flavianum.

1. The arguments here do not accept Eusebius as the initial person to have tampered the TF. Tampering of the TF has happened before and after Eusebius.

2. The passage received by both Eusebius and Pseudo Hegesippus was already tampered with.

3. In examining the TF quote contained in the Excidio, the points of agreement with Eusebius show that both used a tampered passage. (See the bold print in the quote above).

4. How we know Pseudo Hegesippus did not use Eusebius is that he would have used the Eusebius phrase that Eusebius himself inserted – “He was believed to be Christ” (as evidenced by Jerome). The Excidio did not use either phrase- “he was the Christ” or “he was thought to be the Christ”

5. We know the TF was also tampered after Eusebius as the textus receptus has “He was the Christ” yet Whealeys scholarship shows the earlier phrase “he thought to be the Christ” which came from Michael the Syrian which in turn derived from Eusebius. This is similar enough to he was “thought to be the Christ”.

We can tell that Ps-Hegesippus did not use Eusebius. His Christianised document had “leaders of the synagogue confessed him to be god” and would not have dropped the phrase “he was the Christ”, even a paraphrase would not drop that phrase.

A better explanation is that an already tampered TF was received by both Ps-Hegesippus and Eusebius. This is seen from the points of contact, an example I give below. Realistically Ps-Hegesippus paraphrase has “the prophets, who prophesied both this and innumerable other things full of miracles about him.”

The Slavonic 

Slavonic recension is also very important as it actually preserves some parts of the TF that were pre-Eusebian. The Slavonic working off a very early Greek exemplar has preserved some fascinating points despite the major Christian gloss.

Before the thirteenth century, in Constantinople or its environs, an earlier form of the TF was used by the Slavonic. (This recension of the TF came from an earlier Greek examplar and was used as a source for the manuscripts of the Slavonic we have now).

This is now known as the ‘Slavonic Josephus.’ The material corresponding to the beginning of the Testimonium was inserted between the third and fourth paragraphs of the ninth chapter of Book 2 of War. “… it is certainly a noteworthy fact that Josephus’ silence about Jesus in the Jewish War was felt to be a defect at quite an early period, with the result that attempts were made to remedy this state of affairs by a bold insertion of the Testimonium into the War.”[27]

All scholars recognize that the Slavonic has been destroyed with Christian gloss as explained very well by Van Voorst:

“The Slavonic Josephus reflects the growing Christian tendency to excuse Pontius Pilate for Jesus’ death and to blame the Jews, even to the point of saying that the Jews themselves crucified Jesus. To make this point, the Slavonic version has to ignore Josephus’s original statement that Pilate crucified him….The  Slavonic Testimonium uses the New Testament extensively at several points to develop its story.”[28]

But then Van Voorst goes on to say that the Slavonic does “not provide an authentic textual alternative to the main Testimonium Flavianum in the Jewish Antiquities,”[29] as he points out all the ridiculous claims, yet the Slavonic agrees with a very early variant found in a Syriac translation of Eusebius- that variant is ‘certain man.’ As bloated as the Slavonic is it preserves that fact that Jesus was not named in the original TF, and this is within keeping of how Josephus described other Sign Prophets and messianic figures. Josephus hardly knew their names and only knew them as troublemakers.

So Christians were trying to bolster up the TF, but Van Voorst fails to explain why the Slavonic dropped the name “Jesus” and title “Christ” in the exact passage they were quoting from. Of course it is easier to explain if the Slavonic came from an early Greek exemplar. It would explain it perfectly if it came from an exemplar that existed before scribes tampered with Eusebius 10th century Greek manuscripts. There is evidence it came from an early Greek exemplar as a number of Greek words were taken over literally by the Russian.[23] For example: igemon, metropolja, archierei, skinopigja, katapetasma, aramatji and others just shows that the Slavonic is working off an early Greek exemplar. The variant ‘certain man’ matches a very early Syriac translation of Eusebius.[30]

The most telling part of Slavonic is the fact that it says so much about Jesus except his name. It refers to him as “there appeared a certain man” (Slavonic War 2.9.3/4). This suggests that this particular line of transmission has preserved the notion that Jesus was not named in the original TF. There is also a noticeable absence of the phrase “he was the Christ” or the downgraded version is also absent “he was thought to be the Christ”. The opening line is in agreement with one of the earliest variants we have. The earliest Greek manuscripts of Eusebius are 10th century, so many centuries after the Syriac manuscripts. The harder reading of “certain man” in place of “Jesus” as witnessed in the Syriac manuscripts thus shows the name Jesus was added later to the Greek manuscripts.

If Christians were trying to bolster up the TF, as Van Voorst claims, he fails to explain why they dropped his name Jesus and title Christ.[31]  Something similar has happened to the Baptist passage:

The Baptist passage in the Slavonic merely opens with – “And at that time a certain man” … [Slavonic II.VII.2(b)].[32] Again, dropping the name John from a source text used by the Slavonic does not make sense unless the source was from a more primitive version of Antiquities that did not have the Baptist named in the exact passage and was used for the insertion.[33]

Getting back to Jesus not being named in the Slavonic Testimonium “Meschersky (Meščerskij) is at a loss of why the Slavonic dropped Jesus’ name in the exact TF passage and merely asserts unconvincingly that it was to make it less Christian, unlikely given how Christian the passage already is.”[34]

In the following sentence contained in the Slavonic TF could have come from an original TF, “And many souls were roused, thinking that thereby the Jewish tribes could free themselves from Roman hands.” The word tribe is also in the last sentence of the TF. That line plus the fact Jesus was not named nor called Christ, are the parts that the Slavonic has preserved from the original TF.

As damaged as the Slavonic is with Christian gloss, it is on a different transmission line than the Arabic and Michael the Syrian recension. Therefore it is valuable as it came from a pre Eusebian Greek exemplar.

The Slavonic recension

At that time there appeared a certain man, if it is meet to call him a man. His nature and form was human, but the appearance of him more than (that) of a human (being): yet his works (were) divine. He wrought miracles wonderful and strong. Wherefore it is impossible for me to call him a human (being, simply). But on the other hand, if I look at (his) characteristic (human) nature, I will not call him an angel. And all, whatsoever he wrought through an invisible power, he wrought by a word and command. Some said of him, “our first lawgiver is risen from the dead, and hath evidenced this by many cures and prodigies.” But the others thought he was (a man) sent from God. Now in many things he opposed the Law and kept not the Sabbath according to the custom of (our) forefathers. Yet again, he did nothing shameful nor underhand. And many of the multitude followed after him and hearkened to his teaching. And many souls were roused, thinking that thereby the Jewish tribes could free themselves from Roman hands. But it was his custom rather to abide without the city on the Mount of Olives. There also he granted cures to the people. And there gathered to him of helpers 150, but of the crowd a multitude. But when they saw his power, that he accomplished by a word whatsoever he would, and when they had made known to him their will, that he should enter the city and cut down the Roman troops and Pilate, and rule over them, he heeded it not. And when thereafter news of it was brought to the Jewish leaders, they assembled together with the high priest and said, “We are powerless and (too) weak to resist the Romans. Since however the bow is bent, we will go and communicate to .Pilate what we have heard, and we shall be free from trouble, in order that he may not hear (it) from others and we be robbed of(our) goods and ourselves slaughtered and (our) children dispersed.” And they went and reported (it) to Pilate. And he sent and had many of the multitude slain. And he had that wonder-worker brought up, and after he had held an inquiry concerning him, he pronounced (this) judgment: “He is (a benefactor, but not) a male­factor (nor) a rebel (nor) covetous of king(ship).” And he let him go, for he had healed his dying wife. And after he had gone to his wonted place, he did his wonted works. And when more people again gathered round him, he glorified himself by his action(s) more than all. The scribes (therefore) being stung with envy gave Pilate thirty talents to kill him. And he took (it) and gave them liberty to car out their will (themselves). And they took him and crucified him contrary to the law of (their) fathers.

I have noted that Hansen trying to offer a reason for the Slavonic dropping Jesus due to literary reasons is moot as there is no literary reason to drop it.[35] In a previous blog Hansen had suggested it was to make the passage less Christian which was even a more ridiculous claim consider how Christianized the passage was. The Slavonic naming Jesus elsewhere also misses the point- it is missing in the exact passage, which means it was missing in the source used by the chronographer. Hansen goes on to say:

“The first [argument made by Dave Allen] is mitigated by the fact that while the Separated Edition (i.e., the later redaction of the Church Slavic War) omits Jesus’ name, the older editions of the Church Slavic edition retain it (Leeming and Leeming 2003, 261 note for 174b).”[36]

“On inspection of these manuscripts and the footnote of Leeming and Leeming’s book for 174b, it shall be noted that Jesus was not named in the exact passage- it clearly says that it was only in the heading before the passage that the following was written: “Josephus writes about Christ.” The reason the chronographer had to put in that heading before the passage is that the name “Jesus” was missing from the passage!”[37]

John Curran who examined the Latin texts of the TF, has shown this more primitive version of the TF went east.[38] I see the more primative version of the TF made its way east and influenced the insertions of the Slavonic. There are numerous sources to track especially in regard to the additions inserted and added to Josephus’ War book by the Russian chronographer in creating the Slavonic. Apart from Byzantium historians Hamartolus and Malalas, I find a different transmission line going east which would have also influenced those insertions. The reason for this is that it is difficult to explain why the Slavonic dropped the name Jesus and title Christ if this passage did not derive from an earlier form of the TF as witnessed by the textus receptus.

It is obvious “he was the Christ” was not in the original TF, this is played out by De Excidio, the Slavonic and Contra Cels.1.47. […] The Slavonic probably preserved this line from the original TF: “Many were roused, thinking that thereby the tribe could free themselves from Roman hands.”[39] That line makes Jesus sound like the rest of the Sign Prophets as Dave Allen has shown that Jesus was just one in a series of Sign Prophets. “Jesus, like other Sign Prophets, expected a cataclysmic  event to unfold. Many Sign Prophets expected an  eschatological divine intervention, and the earliest strata of  the gospels reflect this.”[40]

As noted above, the Slavonic Baptist passage preserves the fact John was not named. It also provides some other interesting historical nuggets. One change highlighted by Rothschild is agrios:

“Slavonic Josephus refers to John as agrios(“a wild man.”) Eusebius records “good man.” The difference between Slavonic Josephus and Eusebius elicits the question of whether Eusebius improved John’s image with a switch from ágrios to agathos.”[41]

Although she says it is plausible that “good man” fits with Josephus, I think that “wild man” is much more fitting a description by Josephus for a figure executed because of the threat of sedition (Ant. 18.118). We also have evidence of tampering with the Baptism suggesting an earlier form of the Baptist passage:

baptism; for that the washing would be acceptable to him, if they made use of it, not in order to the putting away of some sins, but for the purification of the body; supposing still that the soul was thoroughly purified beforehand by righteousness (Ant. 18.117).

One of the first witnesses of the Baptist passage did not deny Baptism was for washing away sins like the extant passage, it argues for the existence of John the Baptist, baptising for the remission of sins:

For in the 18th book of his Antiquities of the Jews, Josephus bears witness to John as having been a Baptist, and as promising purification to those who underwent the rite. (Origen, Contra Celsum, 1.47)

Rufinus Latin translation of Eusebius History that quoted the Baptist passage seems to agree to this earlier version, perhaps preserving what Eusebius had originally written using Josephus’ Baptist passage:

For then indeed baptism would be acceptable, if it would be taken up not only for washing away misdeeds, but also would be observed for the purpose of purity of the body and indeed for the purpose of righteousness and purification of the soul, and would be considered as a sign of all virtues equally and a certain faithful safeguard. (Literal Translation of LAJ 18.116-119 with Variants from Rufinus)[42]

The Slavonic has an even simpler version-

he did nothing else for them, except to immerse them in Jordan’s stream and dismiss them, bidding them to refrain from their wicked deeds.” [SlavonicII.VII.2(c)][43]

One more piece that we may extract about the TF from the Slavonic is the denial that Jesus was “desirous of Kingship.” The Slavonic denied Jesus was desirous of Kingship thus perhaps preserving the earliest form of the phrase “he was the Christ.” We have other examples within Josephus writings where he reported other messianic figures and Sign Prophets were declared a King. Judas son of Ezekiel had ‘ambitious desire of the royal dignity’ (Ant. 17.272). Simon of Peraea, a slave of Herod the Great ‘dared to put a crown on his head’ (Ant. 17.273) and Athronges the shepherd ‘dared to aspire to be king’ (Ant. 17.278). They were declared King (βασιλεὺς) at a drop of a hat. The Egyptian prophet saw himself as a ‘tyrant’ (War 2.262). The ‘Egyptian’ may have called himself “king Messiah”, because Josephus uses the Greek verb τυραννεῖν (to be sole ruler). So to see the original TF stating that Jesus was “desirous of Kingship,” is in line with Josephus writings.

This blog has shown that the Slavonic not only proves that there were earlier pre-Eusebian versions of both the TF and an earlier version of the extant Baptist passage, but that the Slavonic becomes quiet useful in helping to reconstruct these earlier versions. The Slavonic also provides evidence that a different transmission line of the TF influenced the passage on Jesus in Josephus. This is huge as it makes the “creatio ex nihilo by Eusebius hypothesis” of the TF unlikely

 

Eusebius’ Ecclesiastical History 1.11.7

There is another very important variant found in one of the manuscripts: 

Codex A of Eusebius, Ecclesiastical History 1.11.7 

This reading offers the pronoun τις after Ίησούς referring to “a certain Jesus.” This is the same reading as the Slavonic. “The Slavonic Josephus offers a trace of the same pronoun: the phrase muzi nekij retroverted into Greek would correspond to ἀνήρ τις” [certain man][44]

We have plenty of manuscript evidence that tis (certain) was original to tte TF:

It is little wonder then that Christian scribes omitted the word from all Greek manuscripts of Josephus’ Antiquities, and that the only reason we are aware of its existence is because it is preserved by Eusebius via manuscript Codex A of the Ecclesiastical History [fn. 34 MS Paris Grec 1430 (tenth century) f. 26b line 3. Further pictures may be found at https://gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/btv1b10722779g/f32.item.zoom.%5D and in its ancient Syriac ( ܚܕ ) [fn. 35 MS British Library Add. 14639 (sixth century) f. 14b left col, line 29; MS Russian National Library Siriyskaya novaya seria 1 #24 (462 ce) f. 16a right col, line 26; BL.Add.12154, f. 151r line 20 (eighth/ninth century) and Armenian (մի) translations. [fn. 36 MS HMML 7640 (Codex Mechitaristarum Vindobonensis 49 (70C)) f. 15a line 22.] Michael the Syrian’s version of the TF was derived from Jacob of Edessa (c.708 ce), also preserves ‘a certain wise man, whose name was Jesus’ ( ܓܒܪܐ ܚܕ ܚܟܝܡܐ ܕܫܡܗ ܝܫܘܥ ) [fn.37 Michael the Syrian, Record of Times 5.10 [91] found in MS Edessa-Aleppo Codex 50r left col, line 17.] And according to Bermejo-Rubio, the Slavonic recension of Josephus’ work contains vestiges of this word with the phrase muži nĕkij, which may be ‘retroverted into Greek’ as ἀνήρ τις. [fn.38 Bermejo-Rubio, ‘Hypothetical Vorlage’, p.358.][45]

As tis is attested in multiple manuscripts (Syriac manuscripts, Armenian manuscripts, Church Slavonic manuscripts, and a Greek manuscript – codex A of EH 1.11.7) makes this a certainty that this was the original reading.This expression argues against the TF being made up of whole cloth as the term would only be used for somebody unimportant. The phrase ‘τις’ was also used for Judas the Galilean, War 2.118). The use of ‘certain’ suggests a figure not well known. The qualification of ‘certain’ would only be omitted if the figure was well known. When Eusebius was adding the name Jesus to “certain man” contained in the original TF, he had “certain Jesus” originally written, the tis was dropped by later scribes. That would explain this variant better than a scribal error. The same happened with “he was the Christ”- Eusebius originally wrote “he was thought to be the Christ” and this was changed after Eusebius to “he was the Christ”. 

This variant plus the Slavonic suggests that the particular line of transmission the Slavonic came from has preserved the notion that Jesus was not named in the original TF. Of course Jesus not being named is not unusual for Josephus: cases such as the ‘Egyptian’ (War 2.261– 263; Ant. 20.169–172) who led a revolt of thousands and he was featured in both Antiquities and War yet Josephus could only call him the ‘Egyptian’. Same goes for the ‘Samaritan’ who was also not named and was described as “A man who made light of mendacity”. In that passage his mob “appeared in arms”! (Ant. 18.85–87).

The beauty about Josephus report of these other Sign Prophets passages in Josephus is that they have not been tampered with. Therefore they are invaluable to see how Josephus would have written about Jesus before the TF was tampered. This phrase ‘τις’ was also used for Judas the Galilean, War 2.118 and Theudas Ant. 20.97. It also makes the original TF very similar to the way Josephus described these other apocalyptic Sign prophet types.

For interest let’s produce the TF used by Eusebius and De Excidio

There arose about this time a certain man, a wise man. A teacher of men who worship him with pleasure. Many of the Judaeans, and also many of the Greek element, he led to himself; he was believed to be a King. And when at the indictment of the first men among us, Pilate had sentenced him to a cross. For those who had loved him did not cease to love him. He appeared to them alive after three days. For the prophets of God had spoken with regard to him of such marvellous things [as these]. And this tribe has until now not disappeared

(This first redaction is an attempted reconstruction of the source for Pseudo-Hegesippus when composing his Excidio and a source for Eusebius, it was what was circulating beforeEusebius’ touch up).[46]

Here is what Josephus originally wrote

There arose about this time a certain man, a sophist and agitator. [some eschatological sign similar to other sign prophets could have been the following:] He stated he was a prophet and promised the Temple would be destroyed and that it would be restored in three days] Many of the Judaeans, and also many of the Galilean element, he led to himself in a tumult; he was desirous of Kingship: Many were roused, thinking that thereby the tribe could free themselves from Roman hands. [Josephus may have mentioned Jesus as a pseudo prophet here but it has been replaced with the Emmaus passage found in Luke] And when at the indictment of the first men among us, Pilate had sentenced him to a cross. Many of his followers, the Galileans and Judaeans were slain. Yet this tribe has until now not disappeared.

Here’s links to the rest of the blogs in the series:

Part 1 The Original Testimonium Flavianum

Part 3 Analysis of the Testimonium Flavianum

Part 4 The Layers of the Testimonium Flavianum

Part 5 Wanna know what Josephus originally wrote about Jesus?

Part 6 Exposing the Pre-Eusebian Strata of the TF

Part 7 Why we know there was a Testimonium Flavianum.


[1] Shlomo Pines, An Arabic Version of the Testimonium Flavianum and its Implications. (Jerusalem: Israel Academy of Science and Humanities, 1971).

[2] Thomas Schmidt, Josephus and JesusNew Evidence for the one Called Christ, (Oxford, 2025), p.229.

[3] Alice Whealey, “The Testimonium Flavianum in Syriac and Arabic”, New Test. Stud. 54, (Cambridge University Press, 2008)pp. 573–590.

[4] Thomas Schmidt, Josephus and JesusNew Evidence for the one Called Christ, (Oxford, 2025), p.56.

[5] Alice Whealey, “Josephus, Eusebius of Caesarea, and the Testimonium Flavianum” in Christoph Böttrich and Jens Herzer (eds) Josephus und das Neue Testament, (Tübingen: Mohr Siebeck, 2007), pp.115-6.

[6] Alice Whealey, The Testimonium Flavianum in Syriac and Arabic, New Test. Stud. 54, (Cambridge University Press, 2008), pp. 573–590.

[7] The physical Syriac manuscript of Ecclesiastical History that contains the variant ‘certain man’ is from the 6th century, the manuscript is MS British Library Add. 14,639; cit. op. Thomas Schmidt, Josephus and JesusNew Evidence for the one Called Christ, (Oxford, 2025), p.47, n.57.

[8] Louis Feldman, “On the Authenticity of the Testimonium Flavianum”, in E. Carleback and J. J. Schacter (eds.), On the Authenticity of the Testimonium Flavianum Attributed to Josephus: New Perspectives on Jewish-Christian Relations, Library of Judaism 33; Leiden: Brill, 2012), p.25

[9] Paget, Some Observations, pp.574-575.

[10] Whealey, “Josephus, Eusebius of Caesarea”, pp.100-105.

[11] Whealey, “Josephus, Eusebius of Caesarea”, p.105.

[12] Alice Whealey, “Josephus, Eusebius of Caesarea, and the Testimonium Flavianum”, in C. Böttridge and J. Herzer (eds), Josephus und das Neue Testament, (Tübingen 2007), pp.73- 116 (103); Paget, “Some Observations”, pp.574-575.

[13] See David B. Levenson and Thomas R. Martin, ‘The Latin Translations of Josephus on Jesus, John the Baptist, and James: Critical Texts of the Latin Translation of the Antiquities and Rufinus’ Translation of Eusehius’ Ecclesiastical History Based on Manuscripts and Early Printed Editions’, JSJ 45 (2014), pp. 1-79 (25).

[14] Richard M. Pollard, ‘The De excidio of “Hegesippus” and the Reception of Josephus in the Early Middle Ages’, Viator46 (2015), pp. 65-100 (72).

[15] Levenson and Martin,  “The Latin Translations p.25

[16] David Allen, “A Proposal: Three Redactional layer of the Testimonium Flavianum” RevBib 85.1-2,(2023) pp.213-216.

[17] Zvi  Baras, The Testimonium Flavianum and the Martyrdom of James” in Louis H. Feldman and Gohel Hata (eds.) Josephus, Judaism, and Christianity, Detroit: Wayne State University Press, 1987,  pp.339-340.

[18] Christopher M. E Hansen, “A Response to David Allen’s ‘A Model Reconstruction of What Josephus would have Realistically Written about Jesus”, JGRChJ 19 (2023), pp.94-103; Hansen statement on page 95 is totally moot- ,”This also calls into question other parts [other than Tacitus] of the reconstruction as well, including what justifications Allen has for utilizing specific sources,” As Allen uses variants of the TF that are actual quotations and allusions to the particular copy of the TF that various authors used, it is hard to see any point to Hansen’s question here.

[19] Olson, “Why Origen said Josephus was unbelieving in Jesus as Christ” blog.

[20] Allen, “Model Reconstruction”, p.120.

[*] Giuseppe Ferri, https://earlywritings.com/forum/viewtopic.php?p=191053#p191053

[21] Olson, “Why Origen said Josephus was unbelieving in Jesus as Christ” blog.

[22] Feldman, Josephus, Judaism, and Christianity, p.56.

[23] J. Carleton Paget, “Some Observations on Josephus and Christianity,” Journal of Theological Studies 52.2 (2001), p. 567.

[24] Paget, ‘Some Observations’, p. 567.

[25] Paget, “Some Observations”, p.567.

[26] Johannes Nussbaum, ‘Das Testimonium Flavianum: Ein authentischer Text des Josephus’, NovT 52 (2010), pp. 72-82.

[27] Robert Eisler, The Messiah Jesus and John the Baptist: According to Flavius Josephus’ Recently Rediscovered ‘Capture of Jerusalem’ and the other Jewish and Christian Sources. Trans. Alexander Haggerty Krappe (New York: Dial Press, 1931), p.68.

[28] Robert E. Van Voorst, Jesus Outside the New Testament, An Introduction to the Ancient Evidence, (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2000), p.87-88.

[29] Van Voorst, Jesus Outside the New Testament, p.88

[30] The variant ‘certain man’ is found in the Syriac manuscript: MS British Library Add. 14,639, see Schmidt, Josephus and Jesus, p.47, n.57; Wright, Catalogue of Syriac Manuscripts, vol. 3 pp. 1039–40 (catalog #1411).

[31] David Allen, “A Model Reconstruction of what Josephus would have realistically written about Jesus”, JGRChJ 18, 2023, p.126

[32] Henry Leeming and Kate Leeming (eds.), The Slavonic Version of Josephus’s Jewish War, A Synoptic Comparison of the English Translation by H. St. J. Thackeray, with the Critical Edition by N. A. Meščerskij of the Slavonic Version in the Vilna Manuscript translated into English by Henry Leeming and L. Osinkina, Arbeiten Zur Geschichte Des Antiken Judentums und des antigen Judentums und des Urchistentums 46, Boston: Brill 2003, p. 248.

[33] David Allen, Exposing the Pre-Eusebian strata of the Testimonium Flavianum, JHC 20.2  forthcoming 2025, section 4, (not paginated yet).

[34] David Allen, How Josephus really viewed Jesus, Revista Bíblica 85/3-4 (2023b), p. 338; N. A. Meščerskij, “Introduction” in Leeming and Leeming, Slavonic Version, p.19.

[35] David Allen, Exposing the Pre-Eusebian strata of the Testimonium Flavianum, JHC 20.2 forthcoming 2025, section 3, (not paginated yet).

[36] Christopher Hansen, “Reception of the Testimonium Flavianum: An Evaluation of the Independent Witnesses to Josephus’ Testimonium Flavianum”, New England Classical Journal 51.2, (2024), p. 65.

[37] Allen, Pre-Eusebian Strata, Section 3.

[38] John Curran, “‘To Be or to Be Thought to Be’: The Testimonium Flavianum (Again)’, NovT 59 (2017), pp.71-94.

[39] David Allen, “A Propsal, Three Redactionsl layer model for the Testimonium Flavianum, Revista Bíblica 85/1-2 (2023), p. 227.

[40] David Allen, Jesus and the Sign Prophets, JHC 19, 2024, p. 86.

[41] Clare K.Rothchild, “Echoes of a Whisper: The Uncertain Authenticity of Josephus’ Witness to John the Baptist”, in D. Hellhom et al. (eds), Ablution, Initiation, and Baptism: Late Antiquity, Early Judaism, and Early Christianity (3 vols.; Berlin: de Gruyter, 2011), I, p.262.

[42] Levenson and Martin, “The Latin Translations of Josephus, p.37.

[43] Leeming and Leeming, The Slavonic Version, p.248.

[44] Bermejo-Rubio, Fernando, Was the Hypothetical Vortage of the Testimonium Flavianum a “Neutral” Text? Challenging the Common Wisdom on Antiquitates Judaicae 18.63-64, Journal for the study of Judaism 45 (2014) p.358; Paget, Some Observations, p.565; Eisler, Robert, The Messiah Jesus and John the Baptist, (1929), p. 38-41. 

[45] Schmidt, Josephus and Jesus,p.68.

[46] Allen, “A Proposal”, p.219.

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